EEG Fundamentals taught you to read the record. This course teaches what to do for the patient: how seizures and epilepsy are evaluated and treated, and the evidence behind each step.
About 4 hours 55 minutes28 short lessons · read in order or choose a topic from Contents
Each lesson explains the reasoning, shows the trial or guideline that supports it, links back to the electroencephalography (EEG) lesson it builds on, and ends with a quick check. It is written for neurology residents; fellows can use single lessons for review.
How to read the lessons
Green: what to do
Red: harm, what to avoid, a contraindication
Blue: a number worth remembering
Highlighted: the point most often examined
The hand-drawn figures are the lecture's drawings. Each draws itself the first time you reach it; Play draws it again, and the numbered buttons show one part at a time.
This course gives no dosing advice
It teaches how to choose and use treatment, not how much to give. Doses, titration and administration depend on the patient and change over time, so take them from your institution's order sets and a current drug reference when you prescribe. Where a study reports risk by dose, as the pregnancy registries do, the dose bands are shown as evidence, not as advice.
Written for teaching by the NeuroLogic team from primary studies and guidelines, cited in each lesson. Reviewed October 2026. Use local protocols and current prescribing information for patient care.
Evaluating a first seizure
Clinical reasoning
A first event raises three questions, in order: was it an epileptic seizure, was it provoked, and what does the workup show? The answers decide whether this is epilepsy and whether to treat.
1. Was it an epileptic seizure?
Most of the answer comes from the history, ideally from someone who saw the event. Transient ischemic attack, migraine aura, parasomnias and hypoglycemia can all be mistaken for seizures. Two mimics deserve particular attention:
Induced syncope in healthy volunteers (Lempert 1994) and eye closure in one video-electroencephalography series (Chung 2006).
Convulsive syncope
When syncope was induced in healthy volunteers, 38 of 42 with complete syncope (90%) had myoclonic jerks, usually multifocal and arrhythmic; 79% had other movements such as head turns or oral automatisms.
The eyes usually stayed open, and the whole episode lasted about 12 seconds.
Jerking does not make an event epileptic.
In 539 people with loss of consciousness and a known diagnosis (102 with epileptic seizures, 437 with syncope), a point score built only from the history separated seizures from syncope with 94% sensitivity and 94% specificity.
The term proposed by the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) task force in 2025 for what were called psychogenic nonepileptic seizures.
In one video-electroencephalography (video-EEG) series, 96% of patients with functional seizures kept their eyes closed, while 97% of those with epileptic seizures had them open.
Pooled across studies the sign is less reliable, especially in blinded studies, and witnesses' accounts of the eyes are often wrong.
Video-EEG of a typical event settles the question.
An acute symptomatic, or provoked, seizure happens at the time of an acute brain insult or systemic disturbance. It is treated by treating the cause, and it does not count toward a diagnosis of epilepsy. The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) definitions, written for epidemiological research, with metabolic cutoffs chosen to favor specificity, include, among others (Beghi 2010):
within 7 days of a stroke, traumatic brain injury, intracranial surgery or anoxic encephalopathy, or during an active infection of the central nervous system;
7 to 48 hours after the last drink in alcohol withdrawal in someone with chronic alcohol use, or during withdrawal from benzodiazepines or barbiturates; also intoxication or exposure to a drug that provokes seizures;
with a severe metabolic disturbance in blood drawn within 24 hours: glucose below 36 mg/dL, or above 450 mg/dL with ketoacidosis; sodium below 115 mmol/L; calcium below 5 mg/dL; magnesium below 0.8 mg/dL; urea nitrogen above 100 mg/dL; or creatinine above 10 mg/dL.
When a seizure counts as acute symptomatic, from the ILAE definitions (Beghi 2010). One unprovoked seizure a month or more after a stroke is the ILAE report's example of epilepsy after a single seizure (Fisher 2014).
A seizure with a milder metabolic disturbance does not meet the definition of acute symptomatic, but the report does not class it as unprovoked either: it falls into an "unknown" category that does not count toward epilepsy. A seizure months or years after a stroke or brain injury is not provoked: it is a remote symptomatic seizure, and it may already mean epilepsy, as the next lesson explains.
A routine EEG showed epileptiform abnormalities in about 23% of adults after a first seizure, and these predicted recurrence.
Timing matters: in 300 consecutive adults and children, an EEG within 24 hours found epileptiform abnormalities in 51%, against 34% when it was done later.
With the EEG, a syndrome could be diagnosed in 77% instead of 47%.
Computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was significantly abnormal in about 10%.
In the emergency department, a noncontrast CT changes acute management in 9 to 17% of adults with a first seizure.
An MRI with an epilepsy protocol should follow soon after a first seizure, if resources allow; it is not routinely needed for typical genetic generalized or self-limited syndromes.
The 2007 American Academy of Neurology parameter on evaluating a first seizure (the source of the 23% and 10% yields) was retired in 2018; its figures remain the clearest summary of what each test finds. The emergency neuroimaging review (Harden 2007) was reaffirmed in 2025.
From the EEG
An EEG helps only if it is read correctly. Interictal epileptiform discharges raise the risk of another seizure and can classify the epilepsy. Over-reading is a known cause of misdiagnosis: in patients later shown to have functional/dissociative seizures, EEGs that had been read as epileptiform mostly showed normal sharply contoured background or fragmented alpha (Benbadis 2003). Review Interictal discharges and Normal variants.
Key points
Brief myoclonic jerks are common in syncope; the history, and video-EEG when needed, decide.
A provoked seizure has a cause to treat and does not by itself mean epilepsy.
An early EEG and an epilepsy-protocol MRI give the most information.
Quick check A 45-year-old man with alcohol use disorder stops drinking abruptly and has a generalized tonic–clonic seizure 30 hours after his last drink, with tremor and diaphoresis. Computed tomography of his head is normal. How is this seizure classified?
Treat the withdrawal and the cause; the seizure itself does not establish epilepsy.
Sources: as cited. Seizure terms follow the ILAE classification as updated in 2025 (Beniczky 2025).
When a first seizure becomes epilepsy, and when to treat
Evidence
After one unprovoked seizure, the question is how likely a second one is. That probability decides both the diagnosis of epilepsy and the case for starting treatment.
The ILAE definition of epilepsy
The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) practical definition says a person has epilepsy after any of (Fisher 2014):
at least two unprovoked (or reflex) seizures more than 24 hours apart;
one unprovoked (or reflex) seizure and a probability of further seizures similar to the risk after two unprovoked seizures, at least 60%, over the next 10 years;
the diagnosis of an epilepsy syndrome.
The 60% is a guide, not a sharp line; after two unprovoked seizures the risk of more is about 60 to 90%. The report's example for the second criterion is a single unprovoked seizure at least a month after a stroke, and it warns that one seizure with a lesion, or with epileptiform discharges, does not automatically qualify. Seizures clustered within 24 hours count as one. Epilepsy is resolved in someone who has outgrown an age-dependent syndrome, or who has been seizure-free for 10 years and off medication for the last 5.
How likely is a second seizure?
Level A, B, C: the American Academy of Neurology grades each guideline recommendation by the evidence behind it, from A (the strongest) to C (the weakest).
After a first unprovoked seizure in an adult, the risk of another is highest early: 21 to 45% within 2 years (Level A). These figures come from cohorts that mixed treated and untreated people, and the risk appeared lower in those treated (Krumholz 2015). After a second unprovoked seizure, about three-quarters of people had another within 4 years (Hauser 1998).
Four features raise the risk after a first seizure
A prior brain insult such as stroke or trauma (Level A).
An electroencephalogram (EEG) with epileptiform abnormalities (Level A).
A significant abnormality on brain imaging (Level B).
Range across cohorts in the American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society guideline (Krumholz 2015); second and third seizures in one cohort (Hauser 1998); the threshold from the ILAE practical definition (Fisher 2014).
What immediate treatment does, and does not, do
Evidence
First Seizure Trial (FIRST): immediate or deferred treatment after a first tonic–clonic seizure, 397 people aged 2 to 70
At 2 years, 25% of the treated group had relapsed against 51% of the untreated (FIRST Group 1993). In longer follow-up of an enlarged cohort of 419, the chance of reaching 1 or 2 years without seizures was the same whether treatment began after the first seizure or after a relapse, and 42% of the deferred group had a recurrence during follow-up (Musicco 1997).
Multicentre trial for Early Epilepsy and Single Seizures (MESS): immediate or deferred treatment, 1,443 people
Immediate treatment delayed the next seizure and shortened the time to 2-year remission, but 76% and 77% were seizure-free between years 3 and 5 after randomization, and quality of life did not differ (Marson 2005).
Immediate treatment halved relapse in the first 2 years but did not change who was seizure-free years later (FIRST Group 1993; Marson 2005).
The American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society guideline sums it up: immediate treatment lowers the absolute risk of recurrence over the next 2 years by about 35%, the guideline's estimate (Level B), is unlikely to improve the chance of long-term remission (Level B), may not improve quality of life (Level C), and causes adverse effects in 7 to 31%, mostly mild and reversible (Level B) (Krumholz 2015).
Making the decision together
Treatment after a first seizure is a choice, not a rule. It weighs the individual recurrence risk against the burden of daily medication and its adverse effects, and it depends on what a second seizure would cost this person: driving, work, living alone, pregnancy plans. Many people choose to wait; others, especially those who drive for work, choose to start.
Key points
Epilepsy can be diagnosed after one unprovoked seizure when the risk of another is at least 60%; the ILAE report's example is a seizure a month or more after a stroke.
After a first unprovoked seizure, 21 to 45% recur within 2 years; a prior brain insult and an epileptiform EEG are the best-established predictors (Level A).
Immediate treatment reduces early recurrence but not the chance of long-term remission, so the choice is shared.
Quick check A 62-year-old has his first focal to bilateral tonic–clonic seizure 8 months after a left middle cerebral artery stroke. Nothing else provoked it. Does he have epilepsy by the ILAE practical definition?
A prior brain insult is one of the strongest predictors of recurrence. Making the diagnosis does not decide treatment by itself; that remains the shared decision described above.
Sources: as cited. The 2015 guideline was reaffirmed by the American Academy of Neurology in 2024.
What the first sign says: localizing and lateralizing signs
Clinical reasoning
A seizure's signs, read in the order they appear, show where the discharge is and where it goes. Before any test, they often tell which lobe, and which side, the seizures come from.
Describe the whole sequence
The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) seizure classification, updated in 2025, sorts a focal seizure by consciousness, preserved or impaired, judged from two things: whether the person recalls the seizure (awareness) and whether they respond normally during it (responsiveness). If either is impaired, consciousness is impaired. In its expanded version the seizure is then described by listing its signs in the order they appear, joined by arrows, because the sequence characterizes the epileptic network better than the first sign alone (Beniczky 2025).
The classification's own example of a focal impaired consciousness seizure (Beniczky 2025), the commonest aura in mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (French 1993) and the lateralizing value of dystonic posturing (Bleasel 1997).
Two rules sit behind localization. A sign shows where the discharge is when the sign appears, the symptomatogenic zone, which may lie some way from where the seizure began (the zones are set out in Presurgical evaluation). And primary cortex produces elementary symptoms while association cortex produces complex ones: among 20 surgically treated patients with visual auras, complex visual hallucinations never came from occipital lobe seizures, while elementary hallucinations, illusions and visual loss came from occipital, occipitotemporal and anteromedial temporal onsets alike (Bien 2000).
Where the first sign points
Mesial temporal
In 67 patients with proven mesial temporal onset, an abdominal visceral (epigastric) aura was by far the commonest, in 61%.
81% had had convulsions in early childhood, most with fever; habitual seizures began at a mean age of 9 years.
Consciousness is then impaired, with oral and hand automatisms, as in the classification's example above.
Supplementary motor area and sleep-related hypermotor epilepsy
Supplementary motor area seizures are short, stereotyped and tend to arise from sleep, often with tonic abduction of the arms at onset. They are easily mistaken for functional seizures, which are long, variable and arise from wakefulness.
Sleep-related hypermotor epilepsy replaced the name nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy: the attacks are tied to sleep rather than the time of day, can arise outside the frontal lobe, and have characteristic motor features. The diagnosis has three levels of certainty: witnessed, video-documented and confirmed by video-electroencephalography (video-EEG).
With consciousness preserved: a sensation of laryngeal constriction and paresthesias, often unpleasant, over large areas of skin; then dysarthria and focal motor signs.
In stereo-electroencephalography of 50 patients with temporal lobe epilepsy whose seizures were suspected to involve the perisylvian cortex, 6 had this insular sequence. Seen at the start of seizures that otherwise look temporal, it points to the insula, which should be recorded directly before any decision on surgery.
Some signs point to the hemisphere where the seizure starts. They differ in how often they appear, how well observers agree on them and how often they are right.
In temporal lobe epilepsy, present in 35%, with a positive predictive value of 92% and good agreement between observers (Bleasel 1997)
Forced, sustained head and eye version
Opposite
Positive predictive value 100% in temporal and extratemporal seizures (Bleasel 1997). Version late in a convulsion is often toward the onset, in 12 of 27 such convulsions, so it does not lateralize (Wyllie 1986)
Figure-of-4: one elbow extended, the other flexed, as the seizure becomes bilateral
Signs are stronger together. In a blinded review of 47 seizures that became bilateral, version, unilateral tonic or clonic activity, an asymmetric end to the clonic phase and Todd paresis each pointed to the correct side more than 80% of the time, while hand dystonia and the figure-of-4 were less reliable in that setting. When two or more reliable signs agreed, the side was correct in every patient, but no sign separated temporal from extratemporal onset (Marashly 2016).
From the EEG
Video-EEG pairs the signs with the ictal rhythm and the way it evolves; review Two pathways to an electrographic seizure. When the signs and the scalp recording point to different places, or to deep cortex such as the insula, the team may test the idea with depth electrodes (Stereo EEG).
Key points
Describe a seizure as its sequence of signs: the first sign shows the cortex the discharge reaches first, the sequence the network it spreads through.
An epigastric aura suggests mesial temporal onset; laryngeal constriction with widespread paresthesias suggests the insula.
Dystonia of one arm and forced version point to the opposite hemisphere, and postictal nose wiping to the same side; two reliable signs that agree were correct in every patient of one series.
Quick check A right-handed 34-year-old feels a rising sensation from his stomach, then stares. His wife sees lip smacking and fumbling, while his right arm stiffens in a twisted posture. Afterwards he wipes his nose with his left hand. Where do his seizures most likely begin?
Read the signs in order: the aura localizes, and two lateralizing signs that agree give the side.
Quick check On video-EEG, a seizure begins with forced, sustained turning of the head and eyes to the right. Both arms then stiffen, the right elbow extended and the left flexed, and a bilateral convulsion follows. As it ends, the head turns to the left. Which hemisphere does the seizure most likely start in?
Weigh signs by when they occur: forced version before the convulsion lateralizes, late version does not.
Quick check A 30-year-old is being evaluated for temporal lobe surgery. Video-EEG shows that each seizure starts, with consciousness preserved, with a sensation of laryngeal constriction and unpleasant tingling over a large area of skin, followed by slurred speech. The scalp EEG suggests right temporal onset. What should happen before surgery?
Semiology can point away from the scalp EEG; when it points to deep cortex, the next step is a hypothesis tested with stereo EEG.
Sources: as cited. Seizure terms follow the ILAE classification as updated in 2025 (Beniczky 2025).
Finding the cause: the scan, the genes and what changes treatment
Clinical reasoning
From the first seizure on, the question is not only whether this is epilepsy but what causes it. The cause often decides treatment: a lesion for surgery, a diet or a vitamin that treats the defect itself, immunotherapy, or a medication that must be avoided.
Six groups of causes
The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification of the epilepsies asks for the etiology at every step, from the first seizure on, in six groups chosen for their treatment consequences: structural, genetic, infectious, metabolic, immune and unknown. The groups are not exclusive: tuberous sclerosis complex is structural, which matters for surgery, and genetic, which matters for counseling and for mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors (Scheffer 2017).
The six etiology groups of the 2017 ILAE classification of the epilepsies, with examples it gives (Scheffer 2017), and how each is found (von Oertzen 2002; Smith 2022).
Group
What it means
Examples
How it is found
Structural
An abnormality on imaging that, with the clinical and electroencephalography (EEG) findings, is the likely cause; acquired, genetic or both
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with an epilepsy protocol: a subtle lesion needs one
Genetic
The epilepsy results directly from a known or presumed pathogenic variant, with seizures a core symptom. Genetic does not mean inherited: many variants arise de novo
SCN1A in more than 80% of people with Dravet syndrome; a causative variant, most often de novo, in 30 to 50% of infants with severe developmental and epileptic encephalopathies
Exome or genome sequencing or a multigene panel, with genetic counseling
Infectious
Epilepsy that results from an infection, not seizures during an acute infection. The commonest cause worldwide
Neurocysticercosis, tuberculosis, human immunodeficiency virus, cerebral malaria, cerebral toxoplasmosis, congenital cytomegalovirus and Zika virus
Tests for the infection; it carries its own treatment
Metabolic
A well-defined metabolic defect, most with a genetic basis
Biochemical and genetic tests; a specific treatment
Immune
Autoimmune inflammation of the central nervous system
N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor encephalitis and leucine-rich glioma-inactivated 1 (LGI1) encephalitis
Antibody testing; immunotherapy
Unknown
Not found yet. How often a cause is found depends on how far the evaluation can go
Many epilepsies, described by their clinical and EEG features alone, such as frontal lobe epilepsy
Revisit the search as tests become available
Groups, definitions and examples from the classification (Scheffer 2017); glucose transporter 1 deficiency from its consensus statement (Klepper 2020).
The scan, and who reads it
The protocol and the reader both matter
In 123 consecutive candidates for epilepsy surgery, the sensitivity for a focal lesion was 39% for a standard MRI reported by a radiologist outside an epilepsy center, 50% when experts read the same scan, and 91% for an epilepsy-protocol MRI read by experts.
Outside reports of standard scans missed hippocampal sclerosis in 86% of cases.
The ILAE Neuroimaging Task Force endorses structural MRI in new-onset epilepsy, generalized and focal alike, and sets a minimum protocol, HARNESS-MRI (harmonized neuroimaging of epilepsy structural sequences), built on three-dimensional acquisitions that most scanners can perform.
It also endorses computer-aided postprocessing to bring out subtle lesions.
A drug-resistant focal epilepsy with a "normal" standard MRI deserves an early epilepsy-protocol scan at a unit with epilepsy experience before it is called nonlesional.
The National Society of Genetic Counselors guideline strongly recommends genetic testing for everyone with unexplained epilepsy, at any age: epilepsy not attributed to an acquired cause such as trauma or infection. First-tier testing is exome or genome sequencing, or a multigene panel of more than 25 genes, followed by chromosomal microarray, with exome or genome sequencing conditionally preferred over a panel. Tests should be chosen, ordered and interpreted by a qualified clinician with genetic counseling before and after (Smith 2022).
Counseling matters because a result changes more than the label. A de novo variant means the parents are unlikely to have epilepsy, but the patient may pass it on: with a dominant variant, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting it, though whether the child has epilepsy depends on its penetrance (Scheffer 2017).
Results that change treatment
Some results change the next prescription. The same drug class can harm one genetic epilepsy and treat another.
Six results that change treatment, from the Dravet syndrome consensus (Wirrell 2022), a series of KCNQ2 encephalopathy (Pisano 2015), consensus statements for glucose transporter 1 deficiency (Klepper 2020) and pyridoxine-dependent epilepsy (Coughlin 2021), the valproate label and the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE 6.3.6).
Gene and condition
What changes
Why
SCN1A loss of function (the Nav1.1 sodium channel): Dravet syndrome
Avoid sodium-channel blockers for maintenance therapy
KCNQ2 (a potassium channel subunit): neonatal-onset encephalopathy
A sodium-channel blocker often works
Of 15 infants, 6 had seizure control within 2 weeks of carbamazepine and 5 became seizure-free with phenytoin; the authors propose sodium-channel blockers as first-line (Pisano 2015)
SLC2A1: glucose transporter 1 deficiency
Ketogenic diet therapies, the standard treatment
A brain energy failure: ketone bodies supply the fuel that glucose cannot. Confirmed by a low cerebrospinal fluid glucose (hypoglycorrhachia) and an SLC2A1 variant; antiseizure medications alone leave the metabolic defect untreated (Klepper 2020)
Long-term pyridoxine, with lysine-reduction therapy added
Seizures respond to pyridoxine, but most patients still have developmental delay; a lysine-restricted diet and arginine improved biochemical markers and development in many, not all (Coughlin 2021). The first dose can cause respiratory arrest in a responder, so it is given with respiratory support (Stockler 2011)
POLG (mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma): mitochondrial disease
Valproate is contraindicated, also in children under 2 clinically suspected of a mitochondrial disorder
Risk of acute liver failure and death (boxed warning, valproate label)
TSC1 or TSC2: tuberous sclerosis complex
Vigabatrin alone first for infantile spasms; everolimus or cannabidiol for the focal seizures that follow
NICE recommends vigabatrin first for spasms due to tuberous sclerosis complex (NICE 6.3.6); everolimus and cannabidiol are labeled for its seizures (everolimus label; cannabidiol label)
Once a pyridoxine trial has started, it is continued until biochemical or genetic testing has excluded pyridoxine-dependent epilepsy, so that a late or masked response is not missed (Stockler 2011).
Immune causes
Two different questions
The ILAE Autoimmunity and Inflammation Task Force separates acute symptomatic seizures secondary to autoimmune encephalitis from autoimmune-associated epilepsy, which implies an enduring predisposition to seizures.
The distinction matters for mechanism, treatment, prognosis and social consequences: acute symptomatic seizures from an active encephalitis are not epilepsy.
Antibody testing has made these diagnoses more common; the examples in the classification are NMDA receptor and LGI1 encephalitis, both treated with immunotherapy.
The EEG often points to the group to search: a focal abnormality to the scan, and the patterns of the developmental and epileptic encephalopathies to genetic and metabolic testing. Review EEG patterns of the developmental and epileptic encephalopathies. When the scan stays normal in a focal epilepsy, the search continues in Presurgical evaluation.
Key points
Ask for the cause from the first seizure: six groups, chosen for their treatment consequences, and more than one can apply.
An epilepsy-protocol MRI read by an expert found focal lesions with 91% sensitivity, against 39% for a standard scan reported outside an epilepsy center.
Offer genetic testing, with counseling, to anyone with unexplained epilepsy; SCN1A, KCNQ2, SLC2A1, ALDH7A1, POLG and TSC1 or TSC2 results change treatment at once.
Quick check A 15-month-old with developmental regression and new refractory focal seizures is clinically suspected of having a mitochondrial disorder; genetic testing has been sent. Which medication is contraindicated?
A result, or a clinical suspicion, can rule out a medication before it is ever given.
Quick check A 2-year-old has seizures, abnormal eye–head movements and slowing head growth. The cerebrospinal fluid glucose is low with a normal blood glucose, and an SLC2A1 variant is found. What is the treatment of choice?
When the cause is a missing fuel, the treatment supplies another fuel.
Quick check A 32-year-old has drug-resistant focal impaired consciousness seizures that begin with an epigastric aura. A standard MRI at another hospital was reported as normal. What is the next step in the search for a cause?
A "normal" scan is only as good as its protocol and its reader.
Sources: as cited. Etiology groups follow the 2017 ILAE classification of the epilepsies (Scheffer 2017).
Functional/dissociative seizures
Clinical reasoning
Functional/dissociative seizures look like epileptic seizures but arise without an epileptic discharge. The diagnosis rests on positive features, recorded on video-electroencephalography (video-EEG) when possible, and it leads to its own treatment. Missing it is not harmless: in the Established Status Epilepticus Treatment Trial (ESETT), 10% of the patients enrolled for benzodiazepine-refractory status epilepticus had functional/dissociative seizures (Kapur 2019).
The name
In 2025 an International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) task force proposed functional/dissociative seizures for what were called psychogenic nonepileptic seizures, to replace a range of labels that confused professionals and patients. The slash lets the clinician use "functional", "dissociative" or both, depending on the patient and the language (Hingray 2025). Studies cited here used the older term.
How certain is the diagnosis?
Video-EEG is the standard, but it is not available everywhere or for every patient, so the ILAE Nonepileptic Seizures Task Force set out four levels of diagnostic certainty. Each needs a history consistent with the diagnosis; they differ in who saw an event and what the EEG showed (LaFrance 2013).
The four levels of diagnostic certainty of the ILAE Nonepileptic Seizures Task Force (LaFrance 2013).
Level
The event was seen by
The EEG
Possible
A witness, or the patient's own account
No epileptiform activity on a routine or sleep-deprived EEG between events
Probable
A clinician, in person or on a video recording, with features typical of functional/dissociative seizures
No epileptiform activity on a routine or sleep-deprived EEG between events
Clinically established
A clinician experienced in diagnosing seizure disorders, in person or on video
No epileptiform activity on a routine or ambulatory EEG during a typical event, in an event whose semiology would make epileptiform activity expected if it were epileptic
Documented
A clinician experienced in diagnosing seizure disorders, reviewing video-EEG
A typical event captured on video-EEG, with no epileptiform activity immediately before, during or after it
The qualifier in the third level matters. Focal seizures with preserved consciousness often show nothing on the scalp EEG: only 18 of 87 (21%) did in one video-EEG series (Devinsky 1988). So a normal EEG during an event counts against epilepsy only when the event is one that would show an epileptic discharge (LaFrance 2013).
Signs at the bedside, weighed
A review of 34 video-EEG studies found good support for a set of signs; it also concluded that the diagnosis should rest on all the evidence, never on one sign alone (Avbersek 2010).
50 of 52 patients with functional seizures kept their eyes closed, while 152 of 156 with epileptic seizures opened them (Chung 2006); less reliable when pooled across studies (Brigo 2013)
Long duration and a fluctuating, waxing and waning course; asynchronous movements; side-to-side head or body movements
Seen in 24% of patients with frontal lobe epilepsy and 17% with functional seizures, and in 2 to 4% with temporal lobe epilepsy (Geyer 2000)
Slow, deep, noisy (stertorous) breathing after the event
Generalized tonic–clonic seizure
Distinguished generalized tonic–clonic seizures from convulsive functional seizures (Avbersek 2010)
A bite on the side of the tongue
Epileptic seizure
Pooled sensitivity 22%, specificity 100%; tongue biting not specified as lateral (sensitivity 38%, specificity 75%) did not help (Brigo 2012)
Serum prolactin at least twice baseline, drawn 10 to 20 minutes after the event
Generalized tonic–clonic or focal impaired consciousness seizure
A useful adjunct (Level B): pooled sensitivity 60% for generalized tonic–clonic and 46% for complex partial (focal impaired consciousness) seizures, specificity about 96%. It also rises after syncope, and it is not established for status epilepticus or repeated seizures (Chen 2005)
Giving the diagnosis, and treatment
Explain it
In a multicenter study, 10 neurologists gave the diagnosis to 50 patients using a written leaflet and a structured communication strategy: 94% found the leaflet easy to understand, only 4% felt angry during the consultation, and 86% acknowledged that psychological factors contributed to their seizures.
At 3 months, 14% were seizure-free and 63% reported more than a 50% reduction; the study had no control group.
CODES (cognitive behavioral therapy for adults with dissociative seizures), a randomized trial in 368 adults: the therapy added to standardized medical care did not significantly reduce monthly seizure frequency at 12 months (median 4 against 7; incidence rate ratio 0.78, 95% confidence interval 0.56 to 1.09).
It did make seizures less bothersome, lengthen seizure-free periods, and improve quality of life, psychosocial functioning, distress and somatic symptoms, with more improvement judged by patients and clinicians.
In an earlier pilot trial of 38 patients, cognitive behavioral therapy–informed psychotherapy reduced seizures by 51%, and by 59% with sertraline; sertraline alone did not significantly reduce them.
In 78 patients in whom coexisting epilepsy had been excluded by standardized criteria, antiseizure medications were withdrawn safely, as outpatients in most, with no serious adverse events; the functional seizures became less frequent overall.
3 patients developed a new type of attack, focal impaired consciousness seizures, after withdrawal: follow-up is part of withdrawal.
Reports of how many patients with functional seizures also have epilepsy have ranged from 10% to more than 50%. In one video-EEG unit, 3 of 32 patients diagnosed in a year (9.4%) had interictal epileptiform discharges supporting coexisting epilepsy (Benbadis 2001). This is why antiseizure medications are withdrawn only once coexisting epilepsy has been excluded, and why follow-up continues after withdrawal (Oto 2005).
From the EEG
On video-EEG, look at the record during the event: an EEG of wakefulness while the patient appears asleep (Avbersek 2010), and no epileptiform activity before, during or after a typical event (LaFrance 2013). Movement artifact can obscure the record; review the artifact gallery. Between events, do not over-read: EEGs read as epileptiform in patients later shown to have functional seizures mostly showed normal sharply contoured activity or fragmented alpha (Benbadis 2003; Normal variants).
Key points
Four levels of certainty: documented means a typical event on video-EEG with no epileptiform activity immediately before, during or after it.
Weigh signs together: closed eyes, a long fluctuating course, asynchronous movements, crying and recall favor a functional seizure; a bite on the side of the tongue and stertorous breathing favor an epileptic one; pelvic thrusting also occurs in frontal lobe epilepsy.
Explain the diagnosis, offer seizure-specific cognitive behavioral therapy, and withdraw antiseizure medications only once coexisting epilepsy is excluded, with follow-up.
Quick check A 28-year-old has had events for 2 years. Her partner describes her slumping with her eyes squeezed shut, turning her head from side to side, with asynchronous limb movements that wax and wane for 15 minutes; afterwards she cries and remembers the event. No clinician has seen one, and a sleep-deprived EEG is normal. What is the level of diagnostic certainty for functional/dissociative seizures?
The signs fit, but certainty depends on who saw the event and what the EEG showed: a home video seen by a clinician would make it probable.
Quick check A 40-year-old is brought in after a convulsive event that no clinician saw. Which finding most favors an epileptic generalized tonic–clonic seizure over a functional/dissociative seizure?
A specific sign helps when present; its absence proves little, since most patients with epileptic seizures do not bite the side of the tongue.
Quick check A 35-year-old with documented functional/dissociative seizures asks whether cognitive behavioral therapy will stop them. What did the largest randomized trial, CODES, find?
Seizure counts are one outcome; how much the seizures disrupt a life is another, and that is where the trial found its benefit.
Sources: as cited. The term follows the 2025 ILAE task force proposal (Hingray 2025).
Seizures early in life: the neonate and the child with fever
Clinical
The two commonest settings for a seizure early in life ask opposite things. In a neonate, look harder: most seizures show no clinical sign, so the diagnosis rests on the electroencephalogram (EEG). After a brief generalized seizure with fever in a toddler, look less: the evaluation is of the fever, not of the seizure.
Seizures in the newborn
Seizures in the neonatal period are often provoked by an acute cause and may be electrographic only. The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification for neonates therefore rests the diagnosis on EEG: seizures with no clinical feature are included, and a clinical event without an EEG correlate is not classified as a seizure. Because neonatal seizures have a focal onset, there is no division into focal and generalized; a seizure is named by its predominant feature, motor (automatisms, clonic, epileptic spasms, myoclonic, tonic), nonmotor (autonomic, behavior arrest) or sequential (Pressler 2021).
Watching is not enough. In term infants recorded with video-EEG from the first hours of life, only 34% of 526 electrographic seizures had any clinical sign on the video, and only 27% of 177 events the nursery staff suspected were seizures on EEG; in all, only 9% of the electrographic seizures were recognized and documented (Murray 2008).
The neonatal classification (Pressler 2021), the ILAE treatment guideline (Pressler 2023) and the NEOLEV2 trial of phenobarbital against levetiracetam (Sharpe 2020).
Record with conventional video-EEG
The American Clinical Neurophysiology Society guideline calls conventional video-EEG the gold standard for detecting and quantifying neonatal seizures; single- and dual-channel amplitude-integrated EEG alone is not recommended for this when conventional EEG is available.
Use it to tell whether unexplained paroxysmal events are seizures, and to screen neonates at high risk, such as those with acute neonatal encephalopathy.
Screen for 24 hours; once seizures are found, continue until the neonate has been 24 hours seizure-free.
In 426 consecutive neonates monitored at 7 US centers, the commonest causes were hypoxic–ischemic encephalopathy (38%), arterial or venous ischemic stroke (18%) and intracranial hemorrhage (11%); a neonatal-onset epilepsy accounted for 13%.
16% had only electrographic seizures, and a higher seizure burden was linked to death and to an abnormal examination at discharge.
The ILAE treatment guideline makes six recommendations (Pressler 2023):
Question
Recommendation
Basis
First medication
Phenobarbital, whatever the cause, unless a channelopathy is likely (for example from the family history); then phenytoin or carbamazepine
Evidence for phenobarbital; expert agreement for the rest
Seizures continue
Phenytoin, levetiracetam, midazolam or lidocaine; levetiracetam may be preferred with heart disease
Expert agreement
Electrographic-only seizures
Treat them too: a lower seizure burden may be associated with a better outcome
Expert agreement
Hypoxic–ischemic encephalopathy
Therapeutic hypothermia may reduce seizure burden
Evidence
Suspected vitamin B6-dependent epilepsy
A trial of pyridoxine when the features suggest it and seizures continue after second-line medication
Expert agreement
Going home
After acute provoked seizures have stopped, with no sign of a neonatal-onset epilepsy, stop the medication before discharge, even if the magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or EEG is abnormal
Expert agreement
Evidence
NEOLEV2: phenobarbital against levetiracetam as the first medication, neonatal seizures of any cause
Judged on EEG by two independent neurophysiologists, 80% (24 of 30) were free of seizures for 24 hours on phenobarbital, against 28% (15 of 53) on levetiracetam. Adverse effects were more frequent with phenobarbital, though not significantly (Sharpe 2020).
Febrile seizures
A febrile seizure is a seizure with fever, a temperature of at least 38 °C by any method, without infection of the central nervous system, in a child aged 6 to 60 months; it affects 2 to 5% of children. It is simple when it is generalized, lasts under 15 minutes and does not recur within 24 hours, and complex when it is prolonged, focal or recurs within 24 hours (American Academy of Pediatrics, 2008 and 2011).
The American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines on the simple febrile seizure (2008; 2011) and febrile status epilepticus in the FEBSTAT study (Lewis 2014; Lewis 2025).
After a simple febrile seizure
Guideline
The cause of the fever
Find it: that is where the evaluation is directed
Lumbar puncture
Perform it with signs or symptoms of meningitis. It is an option at 6 to 12 months when immunization against Haemophilus influenzae type b or Streptococcus pneumoniae is incomplete or unknown, and in a child already given antibiotics
EEG
Not in a neurologically healthy child
Blood tests
Not routinely to find the cause of the seizure
Neuroimaging
Not in the routine evaluation
Continuous or intermittent antiseizure medication
Not recommended after one or more simple febrile seizures
Antipyretics
May make the child more comfortable, but will not prevent febrile seizures
What parents ask next is whether it will happen again, and whether it is epilepsy. About 30% of children have a second febrile seizure when the first comes after 12 months of age, and about 50% when it comes before. After simple febrile seizures, the risk of epilepsy by age 7 is about the same as in the general population, 1%; children who have had several simple febrile seizures, were younger than 12 months at the first and have a family history of epilepsy are at higher risk, with afebrile generalized seizures by age 25 in 2.4% (American Academy of Pediatrics 2008).
Evidence
FEBSTAT (Consequences of Prolonged Febrile Seizures in Childhood): over 200 children with febrile status epilepticus, a febrile seizure of 30 minutes or longer, followed for up to 10 years
On magnetic resonance imaging within days, 22 of 226 (about 1 in 10) had hippocampal T2 hyperintensity, an acute injury; on follow-up imaging it had become hippocampal sclerosis in 10 of the 14 rescanned (Lewis 2014). By 10 years, 71% of children with the acute hyperintensity had epilepsy, against 23% of those with a normal first scan; mesial temporal lobe epilepsy developed in 39% of the first group and in none with a normal scan (Lewis 2025).
From the EEG
A neonatal electrographic seizure is a sudden, repetitive and evolving pattern lasting at least 10 seconds (Tsuchida 2013), read against postmenstrual age; review The neonatal EEG. After febrile status epilepticus, postictal focal slowing (maximal over the temporal region) or focal attenuation went with hippocampal T2 hyperintensity, so a normal postictal EEG argues strongly against hippocampal injury (Lewis 2025).
Key points
Neonatal seizures are diagnosed on EEG: most have no clinical sign, and many suspected events are not seizures.
Phenobarbital is the first medication for neonatal seizures unless a channelopathy is likely; stop treatment before discharge once acute provoked seizures are over.
After a simple febrile seizure, find the cause of the fever; EEG, blood tests, neuroimaging and preventive medication are not needed.
Quick check A term neonate with hypoxic–ischemic encephalopathy is on video-EEG during therapeutic hypothermia. The EEG shows repeated evolving rhythmic discharges over the left central region; the video shows no movement or other change. What is the next step?
In the neonate the EEG defines the seizure; treat electrographic seizures, with phenobarbital first unless a channelopathy is likely.
Quick check An 18-month-old, fully immunized, has a 3-minute generalized convulsion with a temperature of 39 °C. An hour later she is alert, playful and neurologically normal, with a red, bulging tympanic membrane. What does she need?
Generalized, under 15 minutes and once in 24 hours: a simple febrile seizure, evaluated through its fever.
Quick check A neonate's seizures from a left middle cerebral artery stroke stopped on day 2 with phenobarbital. Magnetic resonance imaging shows the infarct; there is no sign of a neonatal-onset epilepsy. The team is planning discharge. What should happen to the phenobarbital?
Acute provoked neonatal seizures need treatment while they last, not after: stop before going home.
Sources: as cited. Neonatal seizure terms follow the ILAE neonatal classification (Pressler 2021); febrile seizure terms follow the American Academy of Pediatrics.
Choosing a first antiseizure medication
Clinical reasoning
The first drug is chosen in three steps: classify the seizures and the epilepsy, match the drug's spectrum to them, then fit it to the person who will take it.
The three steps, with the evidence from this lesson: the Standard and New Antiepileptic Drugs (SANAD) II trials (Marson 2021, focal; Marson 2021, generalized) and the carbamazepine label.
1. Classify the seizures and the epilepsy
Focal or generalized seizures, and if possible the epilepsy syndrome, using the classification of the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE classification). The history and the electroencephalogram (EEG) do most of this work.
From the EEG
Generalized spike-and-wave or polyspikes point to a generalized epilepsy; focal sharp waves or spikes to a focal one. See Interictal discharges, and the activation procedures that bring them out in Artifacts and activation.
2. Match the spectrum
Some drugs treat both focal and generalized seizures; others treat focal seizures only, and ethosuximide treats absence seizures only. For a generalized epilepsy, the wrong spectrum can make things worse. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) lists carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin, pregabalin, tiagabine and vigabatrin as drugs that may exacerbate absence and myoclonic seizures, including in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (and phenobarbital for absence seizures), advises against them for myoclonic seizures, and notes that lamotrigine can occasionally worsen myoclonic seizures (NICE NG217).
Case series show what happens when a generalized epilepsy is misclassified as focal:
Oxcarbazepine
Worsened or started myoclonic jerks and absences in young people with idiopathic generalized epilepsy.
Valproate carries the highest risk of major malformations, and of a lower intelligence quotient (IQ) and autism spectrum disorder, in exposed children: avoid it when clinically feasible in anyone who could become pregnant (see the women's health lessons).
In the UK, NICE guidance amended in January 2025 also says valproate should not be started for the first time in anyone, of either sex, under 55 unless two specialists independently agree that there is no other effective and tolerated treatment, or that the reproductive risks do not apply.
Topiramate is restricted in women and girls who can become pregnant.
In the Standard and New Antiepileptic Drugs (SANAD) II trial, psychiatric adverse effects were reported by 30% of people starting levetiracetam against 13% starting lamotrigine.
SANAD II, focal epilepsy: lamotrigine, levetiracetam or zonisamide, 990 people aged 5 and over
Levetiracetam did not meet noninferiority to lamotrigine for 12-month remission; zonisamide did on the main analysis, but lamotrigine was better than both in the per-protocol analysis. Treatment was less likely to fail with lamotrigine than with either alternative, mainly because fewer people stopped it for adverse reactions; adverse reactions were reported by 33% on lamotrigine against 44% and 45%. The authors concluded that lamotrigine should remain a first-line treatment (Marson 2021, focal).
SANAD II, generalized or unclassifiable epilepsy: valproate or levetiracetam, 520 people aged 5 and over
Levetiracetam was not noninferior. Valproate brought 12-month remission sooner (median 445 against 636 days), was superior in the per-protocol analysis and failed less often for lack of seizure control. In a post hoc analysis the advantage was not seen in the absence epilepsies (Marson 2021, generalized).
Childhood absence epilepsy: ethosuximide, valproate or lamotrigine, 453 children
Free of treatment failure at 16 weeks: ethosuximide 53%, valproate 58%, lamotrigine 29%. Attentional dysfunction was more common with valproate (49%) than ethosuximide (33%), so ethosuximide is the preferred first drug (Glauser 2010).
NICE suggests considering lamotrigine or levetiracetam first for focal seizures (a weaker "consider" recommendation); it offers a choice of lamotrigine, levetiracetam or valproate for generalized tonic–clonic seizures, within the valproate rules above; ethosuximide first for absence seizures; and levetiracetam or valproate for myoclonic seizures (NICE NG217).
First-line choices and the drugs that may exacerbate each seizure type, from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guideline, chapter 5 (NICE NG217).
What to expect
In a Glasgow cohort of 1,795 people followed for up to 30 years after starting treatment, 50.5% became seizure-free for at least a year on their first regimen. The second regimen added 11.6% and the third 4.4%; all later regimens together added about 2%. At the end, 63.7% were seizure-free, so more than a third were not, and outcomes had not improved over three decades of new drugs (Chen 2018). Why the first drug failed matters: in the original report from the same clinic, 41% of people whose first drug failed because of adverse effects later became seizure-free, against 11% when it failed for lack of efficacy (Kwan 2000).
Key points
Classify first: the wrong spectrum can make seizures worse.
For focal epilepsy, lamotrigine was the best first choice in SANAD II; for generalized epilepsy valproate was the most effective, but its use is limited by its risks in pregnancy.
About half of people become seizure-free on their first medication; each later drug adds less.
Quick check A 17-year-old woman has morning myoclonic jerks and one generalized tonic–clonic seizure; the EEG shows generalized polyspike-and-wave. Which medication is most likely to aggravate her seizures?
Generalized polyspike-and-wave with morning myoclonus means a generalized epilepsy. Choose a broad-spectrum drug and avoid carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and phenytoin, which may exacerbate myoclonic and absence seizures.
Quick check A 45-year-old woman taking apixaban after a pulmonary embolism has had two focal impaired consciousness seizures. Which first antiseizure medication is least suitable for her?
Fitting the drug to the person includes her other medicines. The apixaban and rivaroxaban labels say to avoid drugs that are both P-glycoprotein and strong cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) inducers, naming carbamazepine and phenytoin (apixaban label; rivaroxaban label). Levetiracetam's elimination does not depend on cytochrome P450 enzymes (levetiracetam label).
Quick check Two adults with newly diagnosed focal epilepsy stop their first medication: one because of intolerable dizziness, the other because seizures continued at a full, tolerated dose. Which statement fits the Glasgow cohort?
A first drug that fails for lack of efficacy predicts a harder course than one stopped for adverse effects (Kwan 2000). Drug-resistant epilepsy requires two adequate, tolerated trials (Kwan 2010).
Sources: as cited. NICE NG217 is quoted as updated in August 2026; US labeling does not carry the UK valproate age rule.
How antiseizure medications work
Concept
Where a drug acts explains much of its clinical profile: which seizures it treats, which it can make worse, and which adverse effects to expect.
Seizures start when excitation outruns inhibition in a network. Antiseizure medications shift that balance back in one of four broad ways:
1. Make neurons harder to fire
Sodium-channel blockers stabilize the inactivated channel so that rapid, repetitive firing fails.
Most act on fast inactivation; lacosamide, and in laboratory studies eslicarbazepine, enhance slow inactivation.
Levetiracetam and brivaracetam bind the synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, which is involved in transmitter release; how this stops seizures is not fully known.
Gabapentin and pregabalin bind the α2δ subunit of calcium channels.
3. Strengthen inhibition
Benzodiazepines and barbiturates enhance the gamma-aminobutyric acid type A (GABA-A) receptor.
Vigabatrin and tiagabine raise gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) by blocking its breakdown or its reuptake.
Felbamate also blocks N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) glutamate receptors.
A fifth target explains a whole seizure type. Thalamic relay neurons fire in bursts through T-type calcium channels, and that burst firing drives the thalamocortical loop behind generalized spike-and-wave. Ethosuximide reduces the T-type current, which is why its use is limited to absence seizures; its label warns that, used alone in mixed epilepsies, it can increase tonic–clonic seizures.
Schematic. Ethosuximide reduced the T-type current in thalamic neurons, and valproate did not (Coulter 1989); childhood absence epilepsy outcomes from Glauser 2010.
Choose a target or a drug in the model to see where it acts.
Antiseizure medications by mechanismCarbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and phenytoin can aggravate absence and myoclonic seizures; sodium-channel blockers, lamotrigine included, can worsen Dravet syndrome.
Sodium channel
phenytoin
carbamazepine
oxcarbazepine
lamotrigine
rufinamide
zonisamide
topiramate
Slow sodium inactivation
lacosamide (distinct from the fast-inactivation drugs)
eslicarbazepine (in laboratory studies)
Calcium channel
ethosuximide (T‑type)
gabapentin
pregabalin (both bind the α2δ subunit)
GABA enhancement
benzodiazepines, including clobazam
phenobarbital
primidone
tiagabine (blocks GABA reuptake)
vigabatrin (inhibits GABA transaminase)
SV2A binding
levetiracetam
brivaracetam (higher SV2A affinity than levetiracetam)
AMPA antagonist
perampanel (the only selective, noncompetitive AMPA antagonist)
Multiple or other
valproate
topiramate
felbamate (also NMDA)
cenobamate (sodium channel and GABA‑A)
cannabidiol
Disease-specific
everolimus (mechanistic target of rapamycin [mTOR] inhibitor; tuberous sclerosis complex)
The 3-Hz generalized spike-and-wave of an absence seizure is the thalamocortical rhythm on the scalp electroencephalogram (EEG). Review it in Interictal discharges.
Key points
Most drugs work on one of four jobs: neuronal firing, transmitter release, inhibition or excitation.
Ethosuximide's T-type calcium target matches absence seizures; it does not protect against tonic–clonic seizures.
Carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and phenytoin can aggravate absence and myoclonic seizures; sodium-channel blockers, lamotrigine included, can worsen Dravet syndrome.
Quick check A 7-year-old has many brief episodes of behavioral arrest a day, and the EEG shows 3-Hz generalized spike-and-wave. Which target explains why ethosuximide works for her seizures?
Absence seizures come from the thalamocortical loop. Ethosuximide's narrow target is why it is used for absence seizures, while a sodium-channel drug can make them worse.
Quick check A man whose focal seizures are controlled on levetiracetam asks whether any other antiseizure medication acts at the same target. Which drug binds the synaptic vesicle protein SV2A?
Two drugs bind SV2A, a vesicle protein involved in transmitter release: levetiracetam and brivaracetam; how this stops seizures is not fully known (brivaracetam label; levetiracetam label). Gabapentin and pregabalin act on transmitter release through the α2δ subunit of calcium channels instead.
Quick check A 6-month-old with infantile epileptic spasms syndrome starts vigabatrin, and the parents are told that vision must be assessed at baseline and at least every 3 months. How does vigabatrin raise brain GABA?
Vigabatrin is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA transaminase, the enzyme that metabolizes GABA. It carries a boxed warning for permanent bilateral concentric visual field constriction, which is why vision is assessed at baseline and at least every 3 months and why it is available only through a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (vigabatrin label).
Medication profiles
Reference
Every antiseizure medication used in practice, with its mechanism and the adverse effects that shape the choice. Read it as a set of profiles: spectrum, target and the safety problems to know before prescribing.
Some drugs are broad spectrum (they treat focal and generalized seizures), some treat focal seizures only, and a few are reserved for one syndrome.
Suicidal thoughts and behavior: an FDA class warning
The United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) labels antiseizure medications as a class for an increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behavior, whatever the indication. In the pooled analysis behind the warning, 199 placebo-controlled trials of 11 drugs, the relative risk was 1.8 (95% confidence interval 1.2 to 2.7): 0.43% of 27,863 patients on a drug against 0.24% of 16,029 on placebo, about one more patient for every 530 treated. Watch for new or worse depression, suicidal thoughts or behavior, or unusual changes in mood or behavior, and tell patients, caregivers and families to report them (lamotrigine FDA label, section 5.6).
Antiseizure medications grouped by the seizures they treat, from their US labels and NICE NG217.Common adverse effects by mechanism, from the US prescribing information.
Find a medication
Search by generic or brand name, abbreviation, seizure type, mechanism or adverse effect. Several words find drugs that match all of them.
Suicidal thoughts and behavior is a class warning for antiseizure medications, not a property of one drug: see the FDA class warning above the table.
Binds synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A) with high and selective affinity, about 20 times that of levetiracetam in binding studies; how this stops seizures is not known
Drowsiness, dizziness, fatigue, irritability; Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis (a 2025 warning): stop at the first rash unless it is clearly not drug related
Not established by the label; in the literature, blocks sodium channels in their fast-inactivated state
Dizziness, drowsiness, diplopia, ataxia, hyponatremia, leukopenia; aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis (boxed); serious rash including Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis (human leukocyte antigen HLA-B*15:02 screening
recommended before initiation for patients with ancestry in populations where HLA-B*15:02 is common; consider HLA-A*31:01 risk according to ancestry and local guidance)
Cannabidiol(Dravet syndrome, Lennox–Gastaut syndrome or tuberous sclerosis complex)
Not established; the label says it does not act through cannabinoid receptors. Proposed in laboratory studies: antagonism at G protein-coupled receptor 55 (GPR55), desensitization of transient receptor potential vanilloid 1 (TRPV1), inhibition of adenosine reuptake
Diarrhea, fatigue, decreased appetite, somnolence; raised transaminases, especially with valproate (check liver tests before and during treatment)
Dual: inhibits the persistent sodium current and positively modulates the gamma-aminobutyric acid type A (GABA-A) receptor at a non-benzodiazepine site
Dizziness, somnolence, fatigue, headache, nausea; drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms when titrated fast; clinically significant liver injury (a 2025 warning; liver tests before starting); shortens the QT interval (contraindicated in familial short QT syndrome)
Sedation, fatigue, ataxia, muscle weakness; venous thrombosis and phlebitis at the intravenous injection site; somnolence after the rectal gel; the benzodiazepine boxed warning
Not established; the label describes antagonism at the glycine recognition site of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor, with weak effects on GABA-receptor binding
Sedation, nausea, vomiting; aplastic anemia and hepatic failure (boxed)
Water-soluble prodrug of phenytoin; voltage-dependent sodium channel blockade. Ordered in phenytoin sodium equivalents (PE) rather than milligrams of fosphenytoin
Pruritus, nystagmus, dizziness, somnolence, ataxia; hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias with rapid infusion (cardiac monitoring during and after the infusion)
Neuroactive steroid — positive allosteric modulator of synaptic and extrasynaptic GABA-A receptors
Somnolence, pyrexia, salivary hypersecretion
Lacosamide(focal seizures; add-on for primary generalized tonic–clonic seizures)
Enhances slow inactivation of sodium channels — a different action from the classic fast-inactivation blockers
Dizziness, headache, nausea, diplopia; PR prolongation and atrioventricular block (electrocardiogram when there is cardiac disease or other PR-prolonging drugs)
Proposed in the label: sodium channel blockade, which in turn reduces the release of glutamate
Rash, including Stevens–Johnson syndrome (boxed; more likely with fast titration, valproate or HLA-B*15:02), dizziness, diplopia, headache; class IB antiarrhythmic activity, with a wider QRS complex in structural or functional heart disease; hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis
Benzodiazepine — positive allosteric GABA-A modulator; short acting
Somnolence, headache, nasal discomfort, throat irritation, rhinorrhea; with the injection, respiratory depression and apnea; the benzodiazepine boxed warning
Not established; the label cites increased brain GABA. Proposed in the literature: sodium channels and histone deacetylase inhibition; no effect on the thalamic T-type calcium current
Nausea, vomiting, dyspepsia, tremor, weight gain, alopecia; hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis and fetal harm (boxed); thrombocytopenia, hyperammonemia; the most teratogenic antiseizure medication (see Pregnancy)
Vigabatrin(restricted use; Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy)
Sodium channels and T-type calcium channels, with weak carbonic anhydrase inhibition
Dizziness, somnolence, decreased appetite, weight loss; metabolic acidosis, nephrolithiasis, oligohidrosis; acute myopia with angle-closure glaucoma; a sulfonamide, contraindicated in sulfonamide hypersensitivity
Adverse effects and boxed warnings from the US prescribing information, linked from each drug's name. Every antiseizure medication also carries a class warning for suicidal thoughts and behavior. Mechanisms from the labels where they state one; otherwise from the literature (Sills 2020; valproate and the thalamic calcium current, Coulter 1989; eslicarbazepine and slow inactivation, Hebeisen 2015; brivaracetam binding, Gillard 2011; cannabidiol, Gray 2020; fenfluramine and sigma-1, Martin 2020). Boxed warnings and monitoring are gathered in the next lesson, and drug levels in Drug levels and interactions.
Quick check Before starting carbamazepine in a man whose family comes from Southeast Asia, which test does the US label recommend?
A positive HLA-B*15:02 result means carbamazepine should not be started unless the benefit clearly outweighs the risk. The allele is also linked to Stevens–Johnson syndrome with oxcarbazepine and phenytoin, and lamotrigine's boxed warning now lists it as a risk factor.
Quick check A 34-year-old starting lamotrigine for focal epilepsy has read that it carries an FDA warning about suicidal thoughts and behavior. Which statement about the warning is accurate?
In 199 placebo-controlled trials the relative risk was 1.8, about one more patient with suicidal thoughts or behavior for every 530 treated. Tell patients, caregivers and families to report new or worse depression, suicidal thoughts or unusual changes in mood or behavior (lamotrigine label, section 5.6).
Quick check A 70-year-old taking primidone for focal epilepsy has a serum phenobarbital level reported, although phenobarbital was never prescribed. What is the explanation?
Primidone and both its metabolites, phenobarbital and phenylethylmalonamide (PEMA), have anticonvulsant activity (primidone label). Because it becomes phenobarbital, primidone also shares phenobarbital's enzyme induction (see Drug levels and interactions).
Boxed warnings, monitoring and organ effects
Concept
A boxed warning is the strongest warning in US prescribing information, and each one carries an action: a test before the first dose, monitoring during treatment, a limit on titration or infusion rate, or a restricted program. After the boxed warnings come the organ effects that examinations return to, grouped by system.
Nine boxed warnings sorted by the action each asks for. From the US prescribing information linked in the table below.
Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, strongly associated with the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) allele HLA-B*15:02; aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis
In patients with ancestry in populations where the allele occurs, genotype before starting, and do not start in a carrier unless the benefit clearly outweighs the risk; obtain a baseline complete blood count
Serious rash, including Stevens–Johnson syndrome: 0.3 to 0.8% of children aged 2 to 17 and 0.08 to 0.3% of adults. Risk rises with valproate, with exceeding the starting dose or the escalation, and with HLA-B*15:02
Follow the label's titration exactly, using its slower schedule when valproate is taken; stop at the first sign of rash unless it is clearly not drug related
Hepatotoxicity, highest in children under 2 and in mitochondrial disease due to variants in POLG (mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma); fetal risk: neural tube defects, other major malformations and a lower intelligence quotient (IQ); pancreatitis
Liver tests before starting and at frequent intervals, especially in the first 6 months; contraindicated in hepatic disease and POLG disease; not in pregnancy, planned pregnancy or a woman who could become pregnant unless other drugs have failed or are unacceptable, and then with effective contraception; evaluate abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting or anorexia promptly for pancreatitis
Only for patients who respond inadequately to alternatives, with their written acknowledgment of the risks; not with a history of hepatic dysfunction; serum transaminases at baseline and periodically, stopping if either reaches 2 times the upper limit of normal; a hematologist at once for any hematologic abnormality
Permanent bilateral concentric visual field constriction (in adult studies, 30% or more of patients, per the label's warnings section)
Assess vision at baseline (no later than 4 weeks after starting), at least every 3 months, and 3 to 6 months after stopping; withdraw if there is no substantial benefit within 2 to 4 weeks in infantile spasms or 3 months in refractory focal seizures; prescribed only through a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS)
Serious psychiatric and behavioral reactions: aggression, hostility, irritability, anger, homicidal ideation and threats, with or without a psychiatric history
Monitor closely during titration and at higher doses; reduce the dose if they appear, and stop at once if they are severe or worsening
Keep within the labels' maximum infusion rates: in adults, fosphenytoin's, counted in phenytoin sodium equivalents, is three times phenytoin's, and children have a weight-based limit or the adult limit, whichever is slower; monitor the heart during and after the infusion
With opioids, profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma and death; abuse, misuse and addiction; dependence and withdrawal reactions
Combine with opioids only when alternatives are inadequate, at the lowest doses for the shortest time; assess the risk of abuse before and during treatment; taper gradually to stop or to reduce the dose
The organ effects below, on one figure. From the US prescribing information linked in each card.
Sodium
Carbamazepine: dose-related hyponatremia, in many cases as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.
Oxcarbazepine: sodium below 125 mmol/L in 2.5% of trial patients, usually in the first 3 months, sometimes after more than a year.
Eslicarbazepine: below 125 mmol/L in 1.0% and 1.5% at the two doses reported, none on placebo.
Consider measuring sodium during maintenance treatment, above all with other drugs that lower it, or with nausea, malaise, headache, lethargy, confusion or more frequent seizures.
Acidosis, nephrolithiasis and hyperthermia: topiramate and zonisamide
Both inhibit carbonic anhydrase: the kidney loses bicarbonate, causing a hyperchloremic, non-anion-gap metabolic acidosis. Measure bicarbonate at baseline and periodically.
Nephrolithiasis: 1.5% of adults on topiramate in adjunctive trials, 4% of adults on zonisamide.
Oligohidrosis and hyperthermia, mostly in children: watch for decreased sweating and a rising temperature in hot weather.
Zonisamide is a sulfonamide: contraindicated in sulfonamide hypersensitivity; fatal reactions have occurred.
Topiramate and zonisamide: acute myopia with secondary angle-closure glaucoma, typically within 1 month of starting. Treatment: stop the drug as rapidly as possible.
Topiramate can also cause visual field defects without raised intraocular pressure, mostly reversible on stopping.
Vigabatrin: permanent visual field loss (the boxed warning above).
Topiramate and zonisamide inhibit carbonic anhydrase: the kidney loses bicarbonate, nephrolithiasis can follow, sweating falls, and either drug can close the drainage angle of the eye (topiramate and zonisamide labels).
Weight
Gain with valproate: 10% against 3% on levetiracetam in the Standard and New Antiepileptic Drugs (SANAD) II trial.
Gain with pregabalin: 9% gained 7% or more of baseline weight, against 2% on placebo, with dose and duration.
Loss with topiramate: 9% against 3% on placebo in adult adjunctive trials.
Loss with fenfluramine in the Dravet syndrome trials: decreased appetite in 37% against 8%, decreased weight in 9% against 1%.
Chronic phenytoin:decreased bone mineral density and osteomalacia.
Topiramate monotherapy in children: lower bone mineral density in a 1-year controlled study of 63, linked to the fall in bicarbonate; too small to show whether fracture risk rises.
Schematic intervals, not to scale (lacosamide, lamotrigine, cenobamate and rufinamide labels).
Cardiac conduction
Lacosamide: prolongs the PR interval, dose-dependently; arrhythmias reported after marketing, mostly with proarrhythmic conditions or conduction-slowing drugs. Obtain an electrocardiogram before starting and after titration with conduction disease, severe heart disease, a sodium channelopathy such as Brugada syndrome, or a PR-prolonging drug.
Lamotrigine: class IB antiarrhythmic activity; can widen the QRS complex and cause proarrhythmia in clinically important structural or functional heart disease.
Cenobamate and rufinamide: shorten the QT interval; contraindicated in familial short QT syndrome.
Valproate can raise ammonia, with or without encephalopathy, even when liver tests are normal. With unexplained lethargy, vomiting or a change in mental status, measure an ammonia level.
Valproate is contraindicated in urea cycle disorders.
Topiramate added to valproate raises the risk of hyperammonemia and can cause hypothermia.
Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) is a warning in most antiseizure medication labels: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine, phenytoin and fosphenytoin, lamotrigine, valproate, levetiracetam, lacosamide, topiramate, zonisamide, rufinamide, clobazam, perampanel, gabapentin, ethosuximide and cenobamate among them.
Cenobamate: it occurred, once fatally, when the dose was raised weekly or faster, so it is started low and raised every 2 weeks, never faster.
Oxcarbazepine:25 to 30% of patients with hypersensitivity to carbamazepine react to it.
Valproate and felbamate: the boxed warnings above.
Cannabidiol raises transaminases, mostly with valproate: above 3 times the upper limit of normal in 30% of patients taking valproate and clobazam and 21% taking valproate without clobazam, in the Lennox–Gastaut and Dravet syndrome trials.
Check alanine and aspartate aminotransferases and total bilirubin before starting and at 1, 3 and 6 months. Stop cannabidiol for transaminases above 3 times the upper limit of normal with bilirubin above 2 times, or above 5 times if they stay high.
Cenobamate (warning added 2025): clinically significant liver injury after marketing, including acute liver failure needing transplantation. Check the transaminases and bilirubin before starting, and interrupt or stop it for liver injury without another cause.
Each boxed warning has its action: genotype before carbamazepine; follow lamotrigine's titration, slower with valproate; liver tests and pregnancy avoidance with valproate; vision checks with vigabatrin; echocardiograms with fenfluramine; rate limits for intravenous phenytoin and fosphenytoin.
Hyponatremia: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and eslicarbazepine. Acidosis, nephrolithiasis and oligohidrosis: topiramate and zonisamide. Angle-closure glaucoma: topiramate and zonisamide.
Valproate raises ammonia even with normal liver tests, more so with topiramate; cannabidiol raises transaminases, mostly with valproate; cenobamate can injure the liver.
Conduction: lacosamide prolongs the PR interval, lamotrigine can widen the QRS complex in heart disease, and cenobamate and rufinamide shorten the QT interval.
Quick check A 28-year-old woman started topiramate 3 weeks ago. She now has sudden blurred vision and pain in both eyes. What is the first step?
Topiramate's acute myopia with secondary angle-closure glaucoma typically occurs within 1 month of starting; the primary treatment is to stop topiramate as rapidly as possible (topiramate label, section 5.1).
Quick check A 76-year-old woman taking hydrochlorothiazide starts oxcarbazepine for focal seizures. Six weeks later she is confused and having more seizures, and her sodium is 121 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause?
Sodium fell below 125 mmol/L in 2.5% of patients in the oxcarbazepine trials. Consider measuring sodium during maintenance treatment, particularly with other drugs that lower it or if nausea, lethargy, confusion or more frequent seizures appear (oxcarbazepine label, section 5.1).
Quick check A 19-year-old man whose generalized epilepsy is controlled on valproate adds topiramate for migraine. Ten days later he is lethargic and vomiting, and his liver tests are normal. Which test comes first?
With unexplained lethargy, vomiting or a change in mental status on valproate, consider hyperammonemic encephalopathy and measure ammonia (valproate label). The combination with topiramate raises the risk (topiramate label).
Quick check A 10-year-old with Lennox–Gastaut syndrome taking valproate and clobazam is to start cannabidiol. Which monitoring does the label call for?
Most transaminase elevations in the trials occurred with valproate. Stop cannabidiol for transaminases above 3 times the upper limit of normal with bilirubin above 2 times, or above 5 times if they stay high (cannabidiol label, section 5.1).
Quick check A 35-year-old with drug-resistant focal epilepsy starts cenobamate at a low dose, to be raised only every 2 weeks. Why is the titration so slow?
Start cenobamate at the label's low dose and raise it every 2 weeks; the recommended schedule should not be exceeded (cenobamate label, sections 2.2 and 5.1).
Sources: as cited; boxed warnings and warnings from the current US prescribing information on DailyMed, checked October 2026.
Medicines for epilepsy syndromes
Concept
Once an epilepsy syndrome is recognized, the syndrome rather than the seizure type chooses the medicine. Several drugs are approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for one syndrome only, and in some syndromes a drug chosen by seizure type alone makes the seizures worse.
Syndrome
Choose
Avoid or watch
Source
Infantile epileptic spasms syndrome
Hormonal therapy (adrenocorticotropic hormone [ACTH] or prednisolone) or vigabatrin, without delay; the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) offers prednisolone with vigabatrin first unless steroid risk is high
Delay. On vigabatrin, vision assessment and withdrawal if there is no benefit within 2 to 4 weeks; on ACTH, infection, hypertension and adrenal insufficiency when it is stopped
For spasms, vigabatrin alone, adding prednisolone if it has not worked after 1 week; for later seizures, everolimus from age 2 and cannabidiol from age 1
Everolimus dosing is guided by trough levels; vigabatrin's vision checks
Valproate first; clobazam, stiripentol (with clobazam) or fenfluramine; cannabidiol
Sodium-channel blockers for maintenance: lamotrigine (contraindicated in children by the consensus) and carbamazepine worsen seizures. Phenytoin is not contraindicated for status epilepticus
Valproate first, then lamotrigine, then rufinamide; later clobazam, cannabidiol, fenfluramine, felbamate or topiramate
NICE: carbamazepine, gabapentin, lacosamide, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, phenobarbital, pregabalin, tiagabine and vigabatrin may worsen seizures; the expert algorithm also urges caution with eslicarbazepine and phenytoin. Start rufinamide lower with valproate
Ethosuximide first; if it fails, lamotrigine, levetiracetam or valproate. With other seizure types, start with one of these three
Carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, gabapentin, pregabalin, tiagabine and vigabatrin may worsen absence seizures; valproate under the UK restrictions
Levetiracetam or valproate; in women and girls who could become pregnant, valproate only if other treatments fail
Do not use carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin, pregabalin, tiagabine or vigabatrin; lamotrigine can occasionally worsen myoclonic seizures
Go 2012: low-dose ACTH probably as effective as high-dose; ACTH more effective than vigabatrin for short-term control, excluding infants with tuberous sclerosis complex; better long-term development after successful hormonal therapy than after vigabatrin in spasms of unknown cause.
International Collaborative Infantile Spasms Study: adding vigabatrin to hormonal therapy stopped spasms between days 14 and 42 in 72% against 57% with hormonal therapy alone.
NICE: prednisolone with vigabatrin first; vigabatrin alone when the risk of steroid adverse effects is high; test varicella zoster antibodies before prednisolone.
More than 85% of people with Dravet syndrome carry a pathogenic variant in SCN1A, which leaves them with too little of the Nav1.1 sodium channel (Wirrell 2022). In a mouse model, losing Nav1.1 reduced the sodium current in inhibitory interneurons but not in excitatory pyramidal neurons, which points to failing inhibition as the cause of the seizures (Yu 2006).
Nav1.1 loss silences inhibitory interneurons; sodium-channel blockers deepen it (Yu 2006; Guerrini 1998; Shi 2016; Wirrell 2022).
Sodium-channel blockers worsen it
Lamotrigineworsened seizures in 17 of 21 children; the international consensus rates it contraindicated in children with Dravet syndrome.
Carbamazepine had no effect or aggravated seizures in every SCN1A-positive patient who received it, in a retrospective series.
Valproate first; clobazam, stiripentol or fenfluramine as first or second choices.
Cannabidiol: physicians placed it among the first three choices; caregivers supported it as first or second.
US labels: stiripentol only with clobazam, from 6 months of age and 7 kg, with no data as monotherapy; fenfluramine from age 2, with the echocardiograms of its boxed warning; cannabidiol from age 1.
First choices for Lennox–Gastaut syndrome, tuberous sclerosis complex, CDKL5 deficiency disorder, childhood absence epilepsy and juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Auvin 2025; NICE NG217 chapters 5 and 6; US labels).
The order of treatment
Expert algorithm: valproate first, then add lamotrigine, then rufinamide; after those, in alphabetical order, cannabidiol, clobazam, felbamate, fenfluramine and topiramate.
No more than two antiseizure medications together whenever possible.
NICE advises careful titration and frequent review of each added medicine.
NICE:carbamazepine, gabapentin, lacosamide, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, phenobarbital, pregabalin, tiagabine and vigabatrin. Lamotrigine is both a second-line choice and on this list.
Expert algorithm: caution with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine, tiagabine and phenytoin.
Clonazepam lost its effect in up to 30% of responders, often within 3 months, and can bring on tonic–clonic seizures when several seizure types coexist.
Labeled for the syndrome: clobazam from age 2, rufinamide from age 1, cannabidiol from age 1, fenfluramine, lamotrigine and topiramate from age 2, felbamate, and clonazepam.
Valproate raises rufinamide levels by up to 70%, so with valproate rufinamide starts below the usual starting dose, in children and in adults.
Tuberous sclerosis complex and CDKL5 deficiency disorder
Tuberous sclerosis complex
Spasms: vigabatrin alone first, adding prednisolone if it has not worked after 1 week (NICE). The finding that ACTH works better than vigabatrin did not include these infants.
The focal seizures that follow: the mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitor everolimus, labeled as an add-on from age 2, with dosing guided by trough levels; cannabidiol from age 1.
Both are generalized epilepsies, so the drugs that worsen absence and myoclonic seizures are the ones to avoid (see Choosing a first antiseizure medication). Since January 2025, NICE follows the UK medicines regulator: valproate is not started in anyone under 55, of either sex, unless two specialists independently agree, and in women and girls who could become pregnant only if other treatments fail, with the Pregnancy Prevention Programme (NICE NG217, box 2).
Childhood absence epilepsy
Ethosuximide first: it matched valproate for efficacy with fewer attentional effects, and both did better than lamotrigine.
If it fails, NICE offers a choice of lamotrigine, levetiracetam or valproate; with other seizure types, one of these three comes first.
Ethosuximide treats absence seizures only: used alone in mixed seizure types it may increase tonic–clonic seizures.
NICE offers a choice of levetiracetam or valproate, with valproate under the restrictions above.
Do not use carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin, pregabalin, tiagabine or vigabatrin; lamotrigine can occasionally worsen myoclonic seizures.
US label: levetiracetam as an add-on for myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy from age 12.
Infantile spasms: treat within days with hormonal therapy, vigabatrin or both; in tuberous sclerosis complex, vigabatrin alone first.
Dravet syndrome: valproate, clobazam, stiripentol, fenfluramine or cannabidiol, and no sodium-channel blockers for maintenance.
Lennox–Gastaut syndrome: valproate, then lamotrigine and rufinamide, with many labeled add-ons; start rufinamide lower with valproate.
Absence: ethosuximide first, then lamotrigine, levetiracetam or valproate. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy: levetiracetam or valproate, with valproate's restrictions for women and girls who could become pregnant. Avoid carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine and phenytoin in both.
Quick check A 3-year-old with Dravet syndrome due to an SCN1A variant still has frequent prolonged convulsive seizures on valproate and clobazam. Which addition fits best?
Valproate comes first, and clobazam, stiripentol or fenfluramine are first or second choices (Wirrell 2022). Stiripentol, given with clobazam, would also fit (stiripentol label).
Quick check A 5-month-old with tuberous sclerosis complex has clusters of spasms on waking, and the electroencephalogram (EEG) shows hypsarrhythmia. Which first treatment does NICE recommend?
Spasms due to tuberous sclerosis complex: vigabatrin alone first, adding high-dose oral prednisolone if it is ineffective after 1 week (NICE 6.3.6). Assess vision as vigabatrin's boxed warning requires (vigabatrin label).
Quick check A 16-year-old girl has myoclonic jerks after waking and has had one generalized tonic–clonic seizure; juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is diagnosed. Which first medication does NICE recommend for her?
For myoclonic seizures, NICE offers a choice of levetiracetam or valproate; under the January 2025 rules, valproate is not started in anyone under 55 unless two specialists agree, and in women and girls who could become pregnant only if other treatments fail (NICE 5.4.2 and box 2). The US label approves levetiracetam as an add-on for myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy from age 12 (levetiracetam label).
Quick check A 9-year-old with Lennox–Gastaut syndrome taking valproate is to start rufinamide. What does the rufinamide label advise?
Sources: as cited; indications and ages from the current US labels on DailyMed. The 2012 infantile spasms guideline has since been retired by the American Academy of Neurology and is cited for its evidence review; NICE NG217 recommendations are numbered as on the NICE website.
Drug levels and interactions
Concept
A drug level answers a specific question; it is not a target to chase. And because several antiseizure medications induce or inhibit liver enzymes, they change the levels of each other and of many other drugs.
When a level helps
The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) position paper on drug monitoring lists when a level is most likely to help (Patsalos 2008):
Once seizures are controlled, to record the patient's own effective level, so that later changes can be interpreted.
To diagnose suspected toxicity.
To check adherence, especially after a breakthrough seizure.
When pharmacokinetics vary: children, older adults, other illness, a change of formulation.
When a large change is expected: pregnancy, or an interacting drug added or stopped.
For drugs whose kinetics depend on the dose, above all phenytoin.
A level answers a question; the reference range is a population band, not a target (Patsalos 2008; Patsalos 2018).
The laboratory reference range is not a therapeutic range. It marks a population band below which a response is less likely and above which toxicity is more likely, and some patients are controlled below it while others need and tolerate levels above it. Treat the patient, not the level (Patsalos 2018).
Total and free levels
Laboratories usually report the total concentration, bound and unbound together, but only the unbound drug acts. Phenytoin is about 92% bound to plasma proteins, mostly albumin (Patsalos 2018). With low albumin, or with kidney or liver disease, the unbound fraction rises, so a total level inside the range can hide toxicity; the label advises monitoring unbound phenytoin in these patients (phenytoin label). In kidney failure the cause is weaker binding: in serum from patients with chronic kidney failure treated conservatively, measured in the laboratory, the free fraction of phenytoin was about twice normal at a creatinine near 800 µmol/L (about 9 mg/dL) and up to 4 to 5 times normal in uremia (Tiula 1987). Valproate both displaces phenytoin from albumin and slows its metabolism, and valproate's own binding saturates, so its free fraction rises at higher concentrations and with low albumin (valproate label).
Phenytoin's metabolism also saturates, at a level that differs from patient to patient and is sometimes within the usual range, so a modest increase in dose can cause a very large rise in the level, and toxicity (phenytoin label; Patsalos 2018).
Schematic, not to scale. Phenytoin is about 90% bound to plasma proteins, mostly albumin (Patsalos 2018); in serum from patients with kidney failure the free fraction was about twice normal (Tiula 1987); the label advises measuring unbound phenytoin in these patients and describes its saturable metabolism (phenytoin label).
Enzyme inducers and inhibitors
Inducers speed the clearance of other drugs; valproate slows it (carbamazepine, phenytoin and valproate labels).
Strong inducers
Carbamazepine, phenytoin and phenobarbital are potent inducers of liver enzymes, including cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4); primidone is metabolized to phenobarbital.
They lower the levels of many other drugs: lamotrigine, valproate and other antiseizure medications, hormonal contraceptives, warfarin, cyclosporine and protease inhibitors among them.
Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism: its half-life of 25 to 65 hours at first falls to 12 to 17 hours, and autoinduction is complete after 3 to 5 weeks, so the level at an unchanged dose falls over the first weeks.
Hormonal contraception may be less effective with oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine, cenobamate, rufinamide and clobazam, and with perampanel and topiramate at higher doses (see Contraception).
Cenobamate raises phenytoin and phenobarbital and lowers lamotrigine and carbamazepine.
Felbamate raises phenytoin and valproate and lowers carbamazepine.
Valproate slightly more than doubles lamotrigine concentrations.
It heads the risk factors for serious rash in lamotrigine's boxed warning: adults taking both were hospitalized for rash in 1% against 0.16% without valproate. Use the label's slower titration.
In a retrospective series of 52 patients, valproate levels began to fall within 24 hours of starting a carbapenem; the mean falls were 72% with ertapenem, 67% with meropenem and 42% with imipenem, below the usual range in 90%.
Raising the valproate dose did not restore the levels during ertapenem or meropenem.
Choose another antibiotic, or cover with another antiseizure medication, and monitor valproate levels often.
Carbamazepine and phenobarbital lower warfarin's effect; with phenytoin the international normalized ratio (INR) has been reported both to rise and to fall.
Check the INR closely whenever an antiseizure medication is started, stopped or changed.
Inducers and hormonal contraception: see Contraception.
Drugs cleared mainly by the kidney accumulate as creatinine clearance falls, and several are removed by hemodialysis. Drugs metabolized by the liver need care in hepatic impairment. The labels give the doses; the patterns are what to know.
Kidney failure: lower doses
Levetiracetam is excreted 66% unchanged in the urine: dosed by creatinine clearance.
Gabapentin (not appreciably metabolized) and pregabalin (eliminated mainly by the kidney) are dosed by creatinine clearance.
Vigabatrin, topiramate, oxcarbazepine, felbamate and lacosamide need lower doses, or a lower maximum, in renal impairment, by the label's steps.
Zonisamideshould not be used when the estimated glomerular filtration rate is below 50 mL/min.
Hemodialysis removes levetiracetam, gabapentin, pregabalin, lacosamide and topiramate: their labels advise a supplemental dose after a session (for topiramate, one may be required).
A 4-hour session halves lacosamide exposure.
Brivaracetam and cenobamate are not recommended in end-stage renal disease on dialysis.
Valproate is contraindicated in hepatic disease or significant hepatic dysfunction; felbamate is not prescribed with any history of hepatic dysfunction.
Brivaracetam needs a dose adjustment in all stages of hepatic impairment.
Lacosamide and cenobamate have lower maximum doses in mild to moderate impairment and are not recommended in severe impairment; cenobamate can also injure the liver (see Boxed warnings, monitoring and organ effects).
Levetiracetam needs no adjustment. For phenytoin, measure the unbound level, as above.
In kidney failure, lower the dose of renally cleared drugs; after hemodialysis, give the supplemental dose the label advises.
Quick check A man well controlled on valproate is admitted with pneumonia, starts meropenem, and has a seizure two days later. His valproate level is far below his usual. What is the most likely explanation?
Quick check A man with focal epilepsy and a normal albumin has a total phenytoin level in the lower part of the reference range. After two breakthrough seizures his daily dose is raised by a third. Two weeks later he has nystagmus and ataxia, and the level is well above the range. What explains the disproportionate rise?
Phenytoin's metabolism is saturable: small increments can lengthen its half-life and raise the level very steeply, and where this begins differs between patients. Change the dose cautiously and recheck the level (phenytoin label; Patsalos 2018).
Quick check A 62-year-old whose focal seizures are controlled on levetiracetam starts hemodialysis three times a week. What does the levetiracetam label advise?
The levetiracetam label sets the daily dose by creatinine clearance and recommends a supplemental dose after dialysis (levetiracetam label). Gabapentin, pregabalin, lacosamide and topiramate are handled the same way, as listed above; brivaracetam and cenobamate are not recommended in end-stage renal disease on dialysis (brivaracetam label; cenobamate label).
Sources: as cited; labels are the current US prescribing information on DailyMed.
When a seizure becomes status epilepticus
Emergency
Status epilepticus is defined by two clocks. The first says when to start treating; the second, when there is a risk of lasting injury. Both depend on the type of seizure.
The “five minute rule” is not a rule about seizures in general — it is
t1 for convulsive status only. The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) 2015 operational definition
sets two separate clocks, and they differ by seizure type:
t1 — the point beyond which the seizure is unlikely to stop
on its own. This is when emergency treatment starts.
t2 — the point beyond which there is a risk of long-term consequences: neuronal injury and death, and altered neuronal networks. This is what you are
racing.
Type of status epilepticus
t1 — treat now
t2 — risk of lasting injury
Tonic–clonic (convulsive)
5 minutes
30 minutes
Focal with impaired consciousness
10 minutes
> 60 minutes
Absence status
10–15 minutes
Unknown
The operational definition of the International League Against Epilepsy, drawn to scale (Trinka 2015).
Use the clocks correctly: these operational estimates vary by seizure type and do not establish a safe waiting period. Clinical deterioration, recurrent seizures without recovery, or uncertain onset requires prompt assessment and treatment. The time associated with injury is less certain in nonconvulsive status.
Trinka E, Cock H, Hesdorffer D, et al. A definition and classification
of status epilepticus — Report of the ILAE Task Force on Classification of Status
Epilepticus. Epilepsia 2015;56(10):1515–23.
Types of status epilepticus
The same report classifies status along four axes: its semiology, its etiology, its electroencephalographic (EEG) correlates and the patient's age. The first axis divides status into two groups that are treated differently:
With prominent motor symptoms
Convulsive status (bilateral tonic–clonic, of generalized or focal onset): the emergency with the shortest clocks.
Myoclonic, focal motor, tonic and hyperkinetic status.
Without prominent motor symptoms: nonconvulsive status
With coma, as in the intensive care unit.
Without coma, such as absence status and focal status with impaired consciousness.
Recognized on the EEG.
The first axis of the classification of the International League Against Epilepsy (Trinka 2015).
Key points
Five minutes is t1 for convulsive status only; focal status with impaired consciousness has a later t1.
t2 is the deadline you are racing: 30 minutes for convulsive status.
Nonconvulsive status is diagnosed on the EEG, with or without coma.
Quick check In the ILAE definition, what does t2 mark for convulsive status epilepticus?
t1 (5 minutes) starts treatment; t2 (30 minutes) marks the risk of lasting injury. For focal status with impaired consciousness the clocks are longer, and for absence status t2 is unknown.
Treating convulsive status epilepticus
Emergency
Treatment is a sequence run against the clock: stabilize, give a benzodiazepine early and in full, add a second-line medication if convulsions continue, and escalate to anesthesia if that fails. The common errors are delay and underdosing.
t₁ = 5 minutes: treat now. t₂ = 30 minutes: from here, a risk of lasting injury. Refractory status begins when a benzodiazepine and one second-line medication fail.
Phases from the American Epilepsy Society guideline: stabilization to 5 minutes, initial therapy from 5 to 20, second therapy from 20 to 40 and third therapy from 40 to 60 (Glauser 2016). The times are targets, not waiting periods: move on as soon as a step fails, and refractory status is defined by treatment failure, not by the clock. If consciousness does not return toward baseline after the movements stop, get an urgent electroencephalogram (EEG) for nonconvulsive seizures.
From the first minute
Stabilize
Airway, breathing and circulation; note the time the seizure began.
Intravenous access, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a finger-stick glucose.
Treat hypoglycemia at once. Give thiamine before or with glucose when deficiency is possible, but never delay glucose.
At 5 minutes
Benzodiazepine
The first-line treatment. Give it promptly and in a full dose; underdosing is common and makes it less likely to work.
No intravenous access: intramuscular midazolam, or an intranasal or buccal benzodiazepine.
If convulsions continue
Second-line medication
Levetiracetam, fosphenytoin or valproate, given intravenously; none was superior in the Established Status Epilepticus Treatment Trial (ESETT).
Choose by the patient: valproate is avoided in pregnancy, liver disease and mitochondrial disease; fosphenytoin needs cardiac and blood pressure monitoring.
Phenobarbital is the alternative when none of these is available.
If both fail
Refractory status
Convulsions continue after an adequate benzodiazepine and one second-line medication.
Call neurocritical care: airway, an anesthetic infusion and continuous EEG.
Escalate when the second-line drug fails, whatever the clock says, and look for the cause in parallel.
The minute marks differ a little between guidelines; the American Epilepsy Society guideline gives phases of stabilization from 0 to 5 minutes, initial therapy from 5 to 20, second therapy from 20 to 40 and third therapy from 40 to 60 minutes (Glauser 2016). The order is the same in all of them, and the times are targets, not waiting periods.
Why the benzodiazepine must be early and full
In the American Epilepsy Society guideline, a benzodiazepine is the initial therapy of choice (Level A). In adults, the second therapy is less effective than the first and the third substantially less (Level A); in children, the second also appears less effective, on weaker evidence (Level C) (Glauser 2016). Two prehospital trials show why it should come early:
The Prehospital Treatment of Status Epilepticus trial (Alldredge 2001), the Rapid Anticonvulsant Medication Prior to Arrival Trial (Silbergleit 2012) and first doses in the Established Status Epilepticus Treatment Trial (Sathe 2021).
Evidence
Prehospital Treatment of Status Epilepticus trial (PHTSE): lorazepam, diazepam or placebo given by paramedics, 205 adults
Status had stopped by arrival at the emergency department in 59% with lorazepam and 43% with diazepam, against 21% with placebo. Respiratory or circulatory complications were about twice as common with placebo (23% against 10–11%), though the difference was not significant (Alldredge 2001).
Rapid Anticonvulsant Medication Prior to Arrival Trial (RAMPART): intramuscular midazolam or intravenous lorazepam, 893 children and adults
Seizures had stopped on arrival without rescue therapy in 73% with intramuscular midazolam against 63% with intravenous lorazepam. Among patients whose seizures stopped before arrival, the injection went in a median of about 3½ minutes sooner, which made up for its slower onset, and intubation rates were the same (Silbergleit 2012).
In practice, benzodiazepines are often given late and in too small a dose:
Established Status Epilepticus Treatment Trial
More than three-quarters of first doses of midazolam and of lorazepam were below the guideline dose.
Median time from onset to the first dose: 27 minutes.
Established Status Epilepticus Treatment Trial (ESETT): levetiracetam, fosphenytoin or valproate after a benzodiazepine failed, 384 patients aged 2 and older
Seizures stopped, with responsiveness improving, at 60 minutes in 47% with levetiracetam, 45% with fosphenytoin and 46% with valproate. The trial stopped for futility, and hypotension, arrhythmia, intubation and death did not differ significantly (Kapur 2019). The three drugs did not differ in children, adults or older adults (Chamberlain 2020).
Levetiracetam or phenytoin in children: the EcLiPSE trial (United Kingdom, 286 children) and the ConSEPT trial (Australia and New Zealand, 233 children)
Two open-label trials found levetiracetam no better than phenytoin: convulsive status stopped in 70% against 64% in one (Lyttle 2019) and 50% against 60% in the other (Dalziel 2019).
None of the three was superior; they had similar efficacy, so the choice is made by the patient's other conditions and by local practice. The labels set the limits:
Fosphenytoin
Contraindicated in sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, second- and third-degree atrioventricular block and Adams–Stokes syndrome.
Monitor the electrocardiogram, blood pressure and respiratory function continuously during the infusion.
Contraindicated in hepatic disease or significant hepatic dysfunction.
In mitochondrial disorders caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA polymerase gamma (POLG), and in children under 2 suspected of a POLG-related disorder.
In ESETT, 10% of the patients enrolled for benzodiazepine-refractory status turned out to have functional/dissociative seizures (formerly called psychogenic nonepileptic seizures).
When the movements stop but consciousness does not return toward baseline, the seizure may be continuing without convulsions. That is the next lesson.
Key points
Treat at 5 minutes with a benzodiazepine at full dose; without intravenous access, intramuscular midazolam works at least as well.
Levetiracetam, fosphenytoin and valproate had similar efficacy as second-line drugs; choose by the patient.
Failure of a benzodiazepine and one second-line drug defines refractory status, whatever the clock says.
Quick check A man has been convulsing for 7 minutes on arrival. The nurse cannot place an intravenous line. What is the best next step?
The route matters less than the timing and the dose. When there is no intravenous access, intramuscular, intranasal or buccal benzodiazepines let treatment start at once.
Quick check A 74-year-old man with known second-degree atrioventricular block and no pacemaker is still convulsing after a full dose of intravenous lorazepam. Which second-line plan is best?
Choose the second-line drug by the patient. Fosphenytoin is contraindicated in sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, second- and third-degree atrioventricular block and Adams–Stokes syndrome (fosphenytoin label); levetiracetam, fosphenytoin and valproate had similar efficacy in ESETT (Kapur 2019).
Stopping the movements is not the same as stopping the seizure. And when first- and second-line treatment both fail, the problem moves to the intensive care unit, where the EEG becomes the way to follow treatment.
When consciousness does not return
In a prospective study of 164 patients monitored with continuous electroencephalography (EEG) for at least 24 hours after their convulsive status had been controlled, 48% still had electrographic seizures and more than 14% were in nonconvulsive status epilepticus; these patients were comatose, with no visible sign of convulsions (DeLorenzo 1998). The American Clinical Neurophysiology Society (ACNS) consensus therefore recommends continuous EEG when mental status stays abnormal after convulsive status, and suggests considering it when alertness has not clearly improved within 10 minutes, or consciousness is still impaired 30 minutes after the clinical seizures stop (Herman 2015).
So when a patient treated for convulsive status is not returning toward baseline, arrange an urgent EEG rather than attributing the coma to the medications. Subtle signs, such as nystagmoid eye jerks or subtle clonic movements of the face or a limb, can be the only clinical trace of ongoing seizures.
Refractory and super-refractory status
Status that continues after an initial benzodiazepine and a second antiseizure medication is refractory: it is defined by failed treatment, not by the clock (Brophy 2012; Herman 2015). Status that continues or returns 24 hours or more after anesthesia began, including when the anesthetic is being reduced, is super-refractory (Shorvon 2011).
The principles of care in the intensive care unit:
Anesthetic infusion with continuous EEG
Midazolam, propofol or a barbiturate, titrated to stop electrographic seizures or to a burst-suppression target set by the local neurocritical care protocol.
No anesthetic has been shown better than another in adults: the only randomized trial in adults, of propofol against barbiturates, recruited 24 of the 150 patients it needed in 3 years and could not answer the question.
The practical point is to search early for autoimmune and infectious causes, because some of them can be treated. An international consensus advises first-line immunotherapy within 72 hours of onset and, if seizures continue, second-line immunotherapy and the ketogenic diet early (Wickstrom 2022).
Key points
After convulsive status is controlled, a patient whose consciousness does not return needs an urgent EEG.
Refractory status follows failure of a benzodiazepine and a second-line drug; super-refractory status continues or returns 24 hours or more after anesthesia began.
New-onset refractory status without a clear cause (NORSE) calls for an early search for autoimmune and infectious causes.
Quick check Lorazepam and then levetiracetam stopped a woman's convulsions 30 minutes ago. She is still unresponsive, with occasional subtle clonic movements at the corner of her mouth. What should happen next?
After convulsions stop, continuing coma is an indication for EEG. If the EEG shows seizures, treatment continues as refractory status.
Sources: as cited. The Neurocritical Care Society guideline (Brophy 2012) also sets a goal of definitive control within 60 minutes of onset.
Seizures on continuous EEG and the ictal–interictal continuum
Clinical reasoning
In the intensive care unit most seizures have no visible sign. Continuous electroencephalography (EEG) finds them, and it also finds patterns that are neither clearly seizures nor clearly harmless. Deciding what to do with those is where EEG reading turns into management.
From EEG Fundamentals
This lesson uses the American Clinical Neurophysiology Society (ACNS) names for periodic and rhythmic patterns. Review them first in Critical care patterns and Seizure dynamics.
Who needs continuous EEG, and for how long
In 570 critically ill patients monitored with continuous EEG, 19% had seizures, and in 92% of those every seizure was nonconvulsive. The first seizure came within 24 hours in 88%, but it came later in 20% of comatose patients against 5% of those not in coma (Claassen 2004). A routine 30 to 60 minute EEG finds only about half (45 to 58%) of the patients who go on to have seizures (Herman 2015).
Who needs continuous EEG
The American Clinical Neurophysiology Society (ACNS) recommends it for critically ill patients with:
Persistently abnormal mental status after convulsive status or other clinical seizures.
Acute supratentorial brain injury with altered mental status.
Fluctuating or unexplained altered mental status.
Periodic discharges on a routine EEG.
Pharmacological paralysis with a risk of seizures.
The 2HELPS2B score: when a shorter recording is enough
2 points for brief potentially ictal rhythmic discharges.
1 point each for lateralized periodic discharges, lateralized rhythmic delta or bilateral independent periodic discharges; a prior seizure; sporadic epileptiform discharges; any periodic or rhythmic pattern faster than 2 Hz; and plus features.
On the first hour of EEG: 0 meant a seizure risk under 5% (a 1-hour screen was enough); 1 meant about 12% (monitor 12 hours); 2 or more meant over 25% (monitor at least 24 hours).
The validation excluded patients after cardiac arrest and planned admissions to the epilepsy monitoring unit.
The ACNS 2021 terminology separates what is certainly a seizure from what might be (Hirsch 2021):
Electrographic seizure
Epileptiform discharges averaging more than 2.5 Hz for 10 seconds or more,
or any pattern with definite evolution lasting 10 seconds or more.
Electrographic status epilepticus
An electrographic seizure lasting 10 continuous minutes or more,
or adding up to 20% or more of any 60-minute period.
Electroclinical seizure
Any pattern with a definite clinical correlate time-locked to it,
or one after which both the EEG and the patient improve with a parenteral antiseizure medication.
Ictal–interictal continuum
Periodic discharges or spike-and-wave averaging more than 1 and up to 2.5 Hz; or 0.5 to 1 Hz with a plus modifier or fluctuation; or lateralized rhythmic delta above 1 Hz with a plus modifier or fluctuation.
A description of the EEG, not a diagnosis; the ACNS calls it a concept still under development.
Lasting 10 continuous minutes, or 20% of any hour, and improving on the EEG after medication without clinical improvement: possible electroclinical status.
Not every pattern carries the same risk. In 4,772 critically ill adults, lateralized periodic discharges were most strongly associated with seizures at every frequency, especially with plus features; generalized periodic discharges and lateralized rhythmic delta became riskier as they got faster; and generalized rhythmic delta carried no more risk than no pattern at all (Rodriguez Ruiz 2017).
Where periodic and rhythmic patterns fall: interictal, on the ictal–interictal continuum, or an electrographic seizure (ACNS 2021). Point at or tab to a band for its rule.
Diagnosing nonconvulsive status: the Salzburg criteria
For patients without a known epileptic encephalopathy, the Salzburg criteria turn the definitions into a diagnosis (Beniczky 2013; Leitinger 2015):
Enough by themselves
Epileptiform discharges faster than 2.5 Hz.
Need one more feature
Slower discharges, or rhythmic delta or theta faster than 0.5 Hz, need one of:
subtle clinical ictal signs;
typical evolution in space and time;
improvement of both the EEG and the patient after an intravenous antiseizure medication.
Only possible
Improvement on the EEG alone, or fluctuation without evolution: nonconvulsive status is only possible.
In the validation study's 120 patients with suspected nonconvulsive status, the criteria had a sensitivity of 97.7% and a specificity of 89.6%; in 100 controls with abnormal EEGs the specificity was 97.0% (Leitinger 2016).
Does treating the pattern help?
Evidence
Continuous EEG Randomized Trial in Adults (CERTA): continuous or two routine EEGs, 364 adults with impaired consciousness and no recent seizure
Continuous EEG found seizures more often (15.7% against 4.4%) and led to more changes in antiseizure medication, but mortality at 6 months was the same: 48.9% against 48.4% (Rossetti 2020).
Treatment of Electroencephalographic Status Epilepticus After Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (TELSTAR): treating rhythmic and periodic patterns after cardiac arrest, 172 comatose patients
Stepwise antiseizure treatment suppressed the patterns completely in 56%, but a poor outcome at 3 months was as common as with standard care: 90% against 92% (Ruijter 2022).
The Continuous EEG Randomized Trial in Adults (Rossetti 2020) and the Treatment of Electroencephalographic Status Epilepticus After Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation trial (Ruijter 2022).
These trials do not show that seizures in critically ill patients are harmless. They show that finding and suppressing a pattern does not by itself change the outcome, which depends at least as much on the cause and the patient.
A reasonable approach to a continuum pattern
No trial tells you exactly what to do, so the approach is a judgment that weighs the pattern against the patient:
Describe it precisely. Name, frequency, prevalence, plus modifiers and any evolution or fluctuation. Higher frequency, plus features and lateralized patterns carry more seizure risk.
Look for a clinical correlate: a focal deficit, fluctuating responsiveness or subtle clonic movements time-locked to the pattern.
Consider a diagnostic medication trial while watching the EEG and the examination. Improvement in both supports treating the pattern as nonconvulsive status.
Treat the cause and limit harm. A non-sedating antiseizure medication is a common choice; escalating to anesthesia for a continuum pattern alone is weighed carefully against its risks.
Key points
Most seizures in critically ill patients are nonconvulsive; comatose patients may need 48 hours of recording to catch the first one.
An electrographic seizure lasts 10 seconds or more; electrographic status is 10 continuous minutes or 20% of any hour.
Suppressing rhythmic and periodic patterns after cardiac arrest did not improve outcome in TELSTAR; treat the patient, not only the pattern.
Quick check A comatose patient's EEG shows lateralized periodic discharges at 1.5 Hz without evolution, for most of the record. How does the American Clinical Neurophysiology Society 2021 terminology classify this?
Frequency, plus modifiers, fluctuation and evolution decide where a periodic pattern falls. On the continuum, management becomes a clinical judgment about this patient.
Sources: as cited. Pattern names follow the ACNS 2021 terminology taught in EEG Fundamentals.
Drug-resistant epilepsy: definition and referral
Clinical pathway
About a third of people with epilepsy keep having seizures despite medication. Recognizing that early, and referring, is the most useful thing a general neurologist can do for them.
The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) defines drug-resistant epilepsy as failure of adequate trials of two antiseizure medication schedules to achieve sustained seizure freedom. The schedules must have been tolerated, appropriately chosen and appropriately used, alone or in combination (Kwan 2010).
Appropriate: a drug with proven efficacy for the patient's seizure type, preferably in randomized trials.
Adequate: enough of it, for long enough.
Seizure freedom: no seizures for three times the longest interval between seizures before the change, or 12 months, whichever is longer.
From drug resistance to treatment options Refer as soon as two appropriate medications have failed; a third medication rarely brings freedom from seizures.
1Two medication trials failTolerated, appropriately chosen and adequately dosed, alone or combined
2Refer to an epilepsy centerConfirm the diagnosis, epilepsy type and adherence
3Presurgical evaluation and stereo EEGVideo-EEG in the epilepsy monitoring unit · epilepsy-protocol magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) · neuropsychology · positron emission tomography, single-photon emission computed tomography or magnetoencephalography as needed · stereo EEG when noninvasive data do not agree
4Choose a treatmentResection or laser ablation for a localized onset · vagus nerve, responsive or deep brain stimulation · corpus callosotomy for drop seizures · dietary therapy · trials
Why two medications are enough to call it
Because each drug that fails makes the next one less likely to work. In 1,795 people followed from their first treatment, the first regimen made 50.5% of the whole cohort seizure-free, the second a further 11.6% and the third a further 4.4%; every later regimen together added about 2%. Failure of the first drug raised the odds that each later regimen would fail too (Chen 2018).
Some apparent drug resistance is something else. Before calling it, check four things, which the epilepsy center will also review:
The diagnosis
Functional seizures and syncope do not respond to antiseizure medication.
Video-EEG of the habitual events settles it.
The drug for the epilepsy
A sodium-channel blocker for a generalized epilepsy can fail, or make absence and myoclonic seizures worse.
The dose and adherence
A trial counts only if the drug was taken at an adequate dose for long enough.
Triggers
Sleep deprivation and alcohol.
Why refer early
The evidence for surgery is strongest when it comes early, yet patients still reach it late. At one epilepsy surgery center, the mean time from diagnosis to referral for temporal lobe epilepsy was about 17 years in 1995–1998 and about 19 years in 2005–2008, no shorter after the 2001 randomized trial and the 2003 practice parameter below (Haneef 2010).
Referral delay (Haneef 2010), the two surgical trials (Wiebe 2001; Engel 2012) and the 2022 consensus (Jehi 2022), all cited below.
Evidence
Wiebe 2001: surgery or a further year of medication, 80 patients with temporal lobe epilepsy
At 1 year, 58% of the surgical group were free of seizures impairing awareness, against 8% of the medical group (Wiebe 2001).
Early Randomized Surgical Epilepsy Trial (ERSET): early surgery, 38 patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy disabling for no more than 2 years after two drugs failed
In the second year, 11 of 15 (73%) after surgery were free of disabling seizures, against none of 23 who continued medication. The trial stopped early because recruitment was too slow, not because of its results (Engel 2012).
The American Academy of Neurology practice parameter (Level A) says that patients with disabling focal seizures with impaired consciousness who have failed appropriate first-line drugs should be considered for referral to an epilepsy surgery center (Engel 2003). The 2022 ILAE expert consensus goes further: referral for a surgical evaluation should be offered to every patient with drug-resistant epilepsy up to 70 years of age as soon as drug resistance is established, whatever the seizure type, epilepsy type, duration or comorbidities (Jehi 2022). Referral is for an evaluation; it does not commit anyone to surgery.
Uncontrolled seizures also carry a risk of death. Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) affects about 1 in 1,000 adults and 1 in 4,500 children with epilepsy each year. Generalized tonic–clonic seizures are its major risk factor, and the risk rises with their frequency. The American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society guideline asks clinicians to give patients, or the parents of young children, these numbers; to keep working to reduce seizures in anyone who still has tonic–clonic seizures; and to explain that freedom from seizures, particularly tonic–clonic seizures, is strongly associated with a lower risk (Level B; Harden 2017).
The yearly risk as the guideline asks clinicians to put it (Harden 2017).
Key points
Drug-resistant epilepsy is failure of two tolerated, appropriate and adequately used medication schedules.
After two failures, further drugs rarely bring lasting seizure freedom; refer to an epilepsy center.
Referral is for evaluation; it does not commit anyone to surgery.
Quick check A 28-year-old woman with focal seizures with impaired consciousness has had monthly seizures despite adequate trials of lamotrigine and then levetiracetam, both taken reliably. What is the best next step?
The ILAE definition exists so that referral happens after two failed trials, not after many years.
Sources: as cited; the pathway figure follows Kwan 2010.
Presurgical evaluation and stereo EEG
Clinical pathway
Before anyone operates, the epilepsy team has to agree on where the seizures begin and what that cortex does. No single test answers either question.
What the evaluation looks for
The aim is to find the epileptogenic zone, the cortex whose removal or disconnection stops the seizures, and to map the function around it. No test shows it directly. Each test defines a different zone, the team infers the epileptogenic zone from where they overlap, and it is only proven when the patient is seizure-free after surgery (Rosenow & Lüders 2001).
Schematic zones on a lateral view of one hemisphere, after the zone concept of Rosenow & Lüders 2001.From the noninvasive workup to a treatment decision. The more the tests agree, the better the chance of seizure freedom.
Zone
What it is
Main test
Seizure-onset zone
Where recorded seizures begin
Ictal scalp or intracranial EEG
Irritative zone
Where interictal spikes arise; often larger than the onset zone
EEG, magnetoencephalography
Symptomatogenic zone
Cortex that produces the first symptoms; it can lie away from the onset
Video of the seizures (semiology)
Epileptogenic lesion
The structural abnormality
Epilepsy-protocol magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
When the noninvasive results disagree, show no lesion, suggest a deep or bilateral onset, or point to cortex near language or motor areas, the team states a hypothesis about where seizures start and how they spread, and tests it with depth electrodes. Each lead passes through a small drill hole along a trajectory planned on MRI and vascular imaging to avoid vessels, and is placed with a stereotactic frame or robot. About a dozen leads is typical: 902 electrodes in 76 implantations in one series (van der Loo 2017).
What it records
A typical electrode (DIXI Microdeep) is 0.8 mm across, with 5 to 18 contacts, 2 mm long and 1.5 mm apart, numbered from the deepest; other makes differ slightly.
One lead samples a deep target and the cortex it passes through; both hemispheres can be sampled in one implant.
In the monitoring unit
Antiseizure medications are reduced to record habitual seizures.
Electrical stimulation through pairs of contacts maps function and can reproduce the patient’s aura or seizure.
Compared with subdural grids and strips
Stereo EEG needs no craniotomy and reaches sulcal depths, the insula, the cingulate and the mesial temporal structures.
Grids cover a continuous area of surface cortex, which helps functional mapping of the convexity.
Safety
Meta-analysis, pooled and each estimated separately: any complication 1.3%, hemorrhage 1.0%, infection 0.8%.
One center: major complications after 2.6% of implantations.
Radiofrequency thermocoagulation through the stereo EEG contacts.
Responsive neurostimulation leads at onset zones that cannot be removed.
Lead names
Side, internal target and external entry region.
At Mount Sinai, LHplT is the left lead from the hippocampus to the lateral temporal cortex; see the stereo EEG lead naming reference.
A coronal slice through the hippocampal bodies, seen from the front with the patient’s left on the right. Original schematic, not a patient implant; the insular and cingulate leads are drawn in this one plane for teaching.
Explore implants in 3D in the Epilepsy Brain Atlas. Each example opens with its leads and contacts on a template brain.
Scalp video-EEG supplies two of the zones: interictal spikes mark the irritative zone and recorded seizures the onset. Revisit how a field localizes in Dipole orientation and scalp maxima, and why deep sources hide from the scalp.
Key points
The epileptogenic zone is inferred from where the tests agree, and proven only by seizure freedom after surgery.
Stereo EEG tests a stated hypothesis with depth electrodes when noninvasive results disagree or point to deep or eloquent cortex.
Stimulation through the contacts maps function and can reproduce the habitual aura.
Quick check Scalp video-EEG suggests left temporal onset, but the MRI is normal and positron emission tomography points to the insula. What is the usual next step?
When noninvasive tests disagree, the team writes down where it thinks seizures start and spread, then places leads to test that idea, sampling the insula and temporal structures together.
Surgery, devices and diet
Evidence
For drug-resistant epilepsy the choice is between removing or disconnecting the source, modulating the network, and dietary or syndrome-specific treatment. Only removing, ablating or disconnecting a localized source regularly brings freedom from seizures.
The three families of treatment, from the trials and labels cited in the cards below.
Remove or disconnect the source
Surgery and ablation
Resection: lesionectomy, lobar or multilobar resection, or hemispherotomy or hemispherectomy when seizures arise from one whole hemisphere.
Laser interstitial thermal therapy guided by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), for a well-localized onset.
Corpus callosotomy may reduce drop seizures (tonic or atonic seizures with falls).
In the randomized trial of temporal lobe surgery (patients aged 16 and older), 58% were free of seizures with impaired consciousness at 1 year, against 8% who continued medication.
Approved by the US Food and Drug Administration in 1997; since 2017 labeled for focal seizures from age 4; also used off label for generalized epilepsies such as Lennox–Gastaut syndrome.
Pivotal trial: mean seizure frequency fell 28% with high against 15% with low stimulation at 3 months.
Registry of 5,554 patients: responders (at least 50% fewer seizures) rose from 49% at 0–4 months to 63% at 24–48 months; about 8% became seizure-free.
All three are palliative: the benefit grows over years and seizure freedom is uncommon. Diathermy is contraindicated with each device, and MRI is possible only under the manufacturer's conditions for the implanted system.
Diet and syndrome-specific treatment
Dietary therapy
Ketogenic diet, or a less restrictive version such as the modified Atkins diet or low glycemic index treatment, in children and adults.
The treatment of choice for glucose transporter type 1 (GLUT1) deficiency and pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency.
In a randomized trial in 145 children with daily seizures despite two or more drugs, 38% on the diet against 6% of controls had more than 50% fewer seizures at 3 months.
Immunotherapy when an autoimmune cause is suspected, and clinical trials.
Neuromodulation devices: where they sit
A front view, so the patient's left is on the right of the drawing. Choose a device for its parts, its target, the trial results and when it stimulates; point at or tab to a part for what it is.
Pivotal trials: seizure reduction, active versus control
Pivotal trials of vagus nerve stimulation (Handforth 1998), responsive neurostimulation (Morrell 2011) and deep brain stimulation (Fisher 2010), and open-label follow-up (Nair 2020; Salanova 2021). The control arm was low-level stimulation in the vagus nerve trial and sham stimulation in the other two; the trial results are mean reductions for vagus nerve and responsive stimulation and the median for deep brain stimulation.
What the devices look like
Original drawings for teaching, not photographs or patient films. The hardware is drawn to scale within each picture from the manufacturers' published dimensions, except that the leads are shortened and the vagus nerve coils and the deep brain stimulation lead tip are also shown enlarged. The films show typical placements. The numbers on each picture match the list below it.
Key points
Resection or ablation is the treatment most likely to stop seizures when the onset is localized.
Vagus nerve, responsive and deep brain stimulation reduce seizures; their benefit grows over years and seizure freedom is uncommon.
The ketogenic diet is the treatment of choice for GLUT1 deficiency.
Quick check An adult has two independent mesial temporal seizure onsets on stereo EEG, one in each hippocampus. Which treatment fits best?
Responsive neurostimulation records from leads at the onsets and stimulates when it detects the start of a seizure, which makes it a preferred option for bilateral mesial temporal onsets; anterior thalamic stimulation is another, and resection or ablation of one side is sometimes chosen when that side dominates.
Sources: definition, International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) task force (Kwan 2010); vagus nerve stimulation, American Academy of Neurology guideline update (Morris 2013); device indications from the US Food and Drug Administration approvals and the manufacturers' labeling; trial results as linked in each card.
Stopping antiseizure medication
Clinical
Many people who become seizure-free will ask whether they can stop. The decision trades a higher chance of recurrence against freedom from the medication, and it belongs to the patient once the risks are clear.
Key considerations for withdrawal
Use shared decision-making after an individualized review of epilepsy syndrome, seizure-free interval, prior course, treatment adverse effects, and consequences of recurrence
In adults seizure-free for at least 2 years, discuss that recurrence is possibly more likely after withdrawal; in the largest trial the excess was concentrated in the first 2 years, and no single waiting period suits everyone
In children seizure-free for 18–24 months, incorporate the syndrome's natural history and obtain an EEG when withdrawal is being considered
Plan the taper with the patient; in children, tapering by a quarter every 10 to 14 days was probably no different from tapering over 2 months, and the advisory recommends going no faster than that
Discuss driving, employment, injury, pregnancy, and rescue-plan implications; follow current jurisdiction-specific driving rules during and after tapering
The prediction tool below estimates an individual patient's risk of recurrence after withdrawal, to use in the discussion.
Medical Research Council withdrawal study: 1,013 people seizure-free for at least 2 years
By 2 years, 41% had a recurrence after slow withdrawal against 22% who continued treatment; the gap narrowed afterwards. A longer seizure-free period lowered the risk; taking more than one drug and a history of tonic–clonic seizures raised it (Medical Research Council 1991). Of the 409 who relapsed, 95% had another year free of seizures within 3 years, and the study found no evidence that withdrawal changes the long-term prognosis (Chadwick 1996).
Akershus: double-blind withdrawal, 160 adults seizure-free for more than 2 years on one drug
At 12 months, 15% had relapsed after withdrawal against 7% who continued; the difference did not reach significance (Lossius 2008).
Individual-patient meta-analysis: 1,769 people who stopped treatment
46% had a recurrence, a few as late as 13 years after withdrawal, but only 9% were having seizures in their last year of follow-up. The model behind the prediction tool above uses the duration of epilepsy before remission, the seizure-free interval, age at onset, febrile seizures, the number of seizures before remission, whether the syndrome is self-limited, developmental delay and an epileptiform EEG before withdrawal (Lamberink 2017).
The American Academy of Neurology advisory asks clinicians to cover these points (Gloss 2021):
Adults seizure-free for 2 years
Recurrence is possibly more likely after withdrawal.
There is a small chance medication will not regain control.
Recurrent seizures carry a risk of status epilepticus and death, although withdrawal possibly does not raise the risk of status epilepticus in adults.
Children seizure-free for 18 to 24 months
Withdrawal can be considered, guided by the natural history of the syndrome.
Obtain an EEG: interictal epileptiform activity possibly raises the risk of recurrence.
Taper no faster than a quarter every 10 to 14 days.
The trade-off the advisory asks clinicians to lay out (Gloss 2021).
Key points
Withdrawal after a seizure-free period roughly doubles the short-term chance of recurrence compared with continuing.
Individual risk depends on the epilepsy, its history and the EEG; a prediction model helps the discussion.
Driving, work and the consequences of a seizure often decide the choice.
Quick check A 34-year-old woman has been seizure-free for 2 years on one medication and asks to stop. What is the best way to approach it?
Lay out the recurrence risk, the implications for driving and work, and the plan if a seizure happens, then let the patient choose.
Sources: as cited. The online tool is the published model of Lamberink 2017.
Seizure clusters and rescue medicines
Clinical
Some people have seizures in bursts, closer together than their usual pattern. A written plan and a rescue benzodiazepine that needs no intravenous access let the family or caregivers act at once, which can help avoid progression to status epilepticus and visits to the emergency department.
No single definition
Studies have defined a seizure cluster as 3 or more seizures in 24 hours, 2 or more in 24 hours, or 2 or more in 6 hours (Jafarpour 2018). The UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) manages repeated or cluster seizures, typically 3 or more self-terminating seizures in 24 hours, as a medical emergency (NICE NG217). The US labels of the rescue medicines describe their target as intermittent, stereotypic episodes of frequent seizure activity, distinct from the patient's usual seizure pattern: the comparison is with the patient's own seizures.
Clusters are more likely in severe, poorly controlled epilepsy, and most studies come from tertiary epilepsy centers. They increase health care use and lower the quality of life of patients and caregivers, yet rescue medicines are underused (Jafarpour 2018).
Definitions and plans (Jafarpour 2018; NICE NG217) and the US labels of the four rescue medicines, by route and labeled age, without doses.
The written plan
What the plan says
Which rescue medicine, and by which route.
When to give it: what a cluster looks like for this patient, against the usual pattern.
Who gives it: teach the patient and caregivers to recognize a cluster and use the medicine.
NICE asks for an individualised emergency management plan to be agreed after repeated or cluster seizures and followed when they happen, and for expert guidance if they recur.
The cluster looks different from earlier ones, or its frequency, severity or length, or the person's color or breathing, is alarming.
The written plan says what to do if the seizures do not stop after the rescue medicine; follow it.
Shallow or slowed breathing, breathing that stops, or excessive sleepiness, above all with opioids, alcohol or other central nervous system depressants.
Source: the diazepam nasal spray Medication Guide (DailyMed), except where cited.
Rescue medicines on the US label
All four are benzodiazepines for the acute treatment of seizure clusters in people with epilepsy. They are named here by route and labeled age only; doses come from the label and the prescriber.
Each label says the medicine is not recommended for chronic, daily use as an anticonvulsant, and each carries the boxed warning on concomitant use with opioids; abuse, misuse and addiction; and dependence and withdrawal reactions. Patients and caregivers mostly preferred non-rectal routes (Jafarpour 2018). In the UK, NICE names buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam as the first-line benzodiazepine in the community for a convulsive seizure of 5 minutes or more (NICE NG217).
Needing rescue medicine often is a signal about the epilepsy itself. The labels cap use at five episodes a month, clusters are more likely when epilepsy is poorly controlled, and NICE advises seeking expert guidance when clusters recur: ask whether the epilepsy is drug resistant (see Drug-resistant epilepsy).
A cluster has no single definition; the labels define it against the patient's own usual pattern, and NICE treats 3 or more seizures in 24 hours as an emergency.
Give every patient at risk a written plan naming the rescue medicine, when to use it and who gives it, and teach the caregivers.
Rescue medicines are for intermittent use, at most five episodes a month; needing them often calls for expert review of the epilepsy.
Quick check A 30-year-old with focal epilepsy on two medications uses his midazolam nasal spray for clusters about every week. What is the best next step?
Rescue medicine treats a cluster; recurring clusters are a reason to review the epilepsy, and possibly to evaluate for drug resistance.
Quick check A mother gives her son his rescue medicine for a cluster, as his plan says. Which finding means she should call for emergency help?
The plan says what to give and when, and when giving it is not enough.
Sources: as cited. Labeled ages, frequency limits and warnings are from the US prescribing information on DailyMed; no doses are given.
Living with epilepsy: sudden death, supervision and safety
Clinical
Uncontrolled tonic–clonic seizures carry a risk of sudden death and of injury. Recordings of sudden deaths in monitoring units, and studies of the people who died, point to what lowers the risk: control of tonic–clonic seizures, and someone nearby at night.
How often, and how to tell patients
Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) is the leading cause of death in chronic refractory epilepsy (Ryvlin 2013). The American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society guideline puts the risk at 0.22 per 1,000 patient-years in children and 1.2 per 1,000 in adults, and asks clinicians to tell parents that SUDEP typically affects 1 in 4,500 children with epilepsy a year, and adults that it affects 1 in 1,000 adults with epilepsy a year. Generalized tonic–clonic seizures are the major risk factor, and the risk rises with their frequency; freedom from seizures, particularly tonic–clonic seizures, is strongly associated with a lower risk (Level B; Harden 2017). The numbers were introduced in Drug-resistant epilepsy; this lesson is about the mechanism and the night.
What the recordings show
MORTEMUS, a study of cardiorespiratory arrests in epilepsy monitoring units, surveyed the units of Europe, Israel, Australia and New Zealand, 147 of 160 of which responded, and invited units elsewhere to report cases. 29 cardiorespiratory arrests were reported, including 16 SUDEP, 14 of them at night. In the 10 deaths with cardiorespiratory recordings, a consistent sequence followed a generalized tonic–clonic seizure (Ryvlin 2013):
The sequence in the monitored deaths of MORTEMUS (Ryvlin 2013).
Rapid breathing. After the seizure, 18 to 50 breaths a minute.
Breathing and heart falter. Within 3 minutes of the seizure's end, transient or terminal failure of breathing and heart function: an early postictal, centrally mediated shutdown.
Terminal apnea, then cardiac arrest. Where the failure was transient, it recurred: terminal apnea within 11 minutes of the end of the seizure, followed by cardiac arrest.
In adult monitoring units, SUDEP occurred at 5.1 per 1,000 patient-years, about 1.2 per 10,000 video-electroencephalography (video-EEG) monitorings, probably aggravated by suboptimal supervision and possibly by withdrawal of antiseizure medication. The authors called for better supervision in monitoring units, particularly at night (Ryvlin 2013).
Who is at risk
Two case-control studies show that the danger is a tonic–clonic seizure with no one there.
Odds of SUDEP in a Swedish nationwide case-control study (Sveinsson 2020) and protection by supervision at night in a UK one (Langan 2005).
Factor
Odds of SUDEP
Study
Generalized tonic–clonic seizures in the past year
27 times
Sweden, 255 deaths
Only seizures without tonic–clonic ones
No excess risk (odds ratio 1.15)
Sweden
Tonic–clonic seizures at night
15 times
Sweden
Living alone
5 times
Sweden
Tonic–clonic seizures and no one sharing the bedroom
67 times
Sweden
Tonic–clonic seizures in the past 3 months
13.8 times
UK, 154 deaths
Supervision at night
Odds ratio 0.4
UK
Someone in the same bedroom, or a listening device
Odds ratio 0.1
UK
The Swedish authors estimated that 69% of these deaths in people with tonic–clonic seizures who lived alone could be prevented if they were not unattended at night or were free of tonic–clonic seizures; a previous diagnosis of substance abuse or alcohol dependence also carried excess risk (Sveinsson 2020).
The International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) and the International Federation of Clinical Neurophysiology recommend clinically validated wearable devices for detecting generalized and focal to bilateral tonic–clonic seizures, especially in people who are unsupervised, where an alarm can bring rapid help. The recommendation is weak: detection is accurate, but it is uncertain whether the alarms improve outcomes, and the devices are not recommended for other seizure types (Beniczky 2021).
Everyday safety
Water
In a meta-analysis of 51 cohorts, the risk of drowning in people with epilepsy was 15 to 19 times that of the general population.
It was highest in people in institutional care, with a learning disability or after temporal lobe surgery.
The authors ask that people with epilepsy and their carers be told.
Exercise and sport may improve seizure control, with wider health and psychosocial benefits.
The ILAE task force sorts sports by the risk of injury or death if a seizure occurs: no significant extra risk; moderate risk to the person but none to bystanders; major risk.
Advice weighs the sport, the chance of a seizure, its type, severity, triggers and usual timing, and how much risk the person accepts.
US driving rules for people with seizures are set by each state and vary widely: some set a single seizure-free period in law, others weigh individual clinical factors, and the physician's role and legal protection differ.
Check the current rules of the patient's own state before advising.
Source: survey of the 50 states and the District of Columbia (Krauss 2001).
From the EEG
MORTEMUS could describe the sequence because monitoring units record video-EEG with the electrocardiogram; the expert panel reviewed that material whenever it was available. The same units are where seizures are recorded for surgery (Presurgical evaluation and stereo EEG), so supervision there, above all at night, is part of the safety of the test.
Key points
SUDEP typically affects 1 in 1,000 adults and 1 in 4,500 children with epilepsy a year; tell patients and families, with the numbers.
In monitored deaths, breathing and heart function failed within minutes of a tonic–clonic seizure, mostly at night.
Tonic–clonic seizures with no one nearby carry the highest risk; seizure control lowers it most, and supervision at night protects.
Quick check A 26-year-old man with focal epilepsy has about four focal to bilateral tonic–clonic seizures a year, mostly from sleep. He lives alone. What lowers his risk of SUDEP most?
Control of tonic–clonic seizures comes first; supervision at night and a detector help when they still happen.
Quick checkIn the monitored deaths of MORTEMUS, what was the usual sequence?
The minutes after a tonic–clonic seizure are the dangerous window, which is why someone nearby matters.
Quick check The parents of a 7-year-old with epilepsy ask how often children with epilepsy die suddenly. What does the guideline ask you to tell them?
Give the number, its denominator, and what lowers the risk.
Sources: as cited. SUDEP incidence and counseling follow the American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society guideline (Harden 2017).
Hormones and the menstrual cycle
Clinical
Sex hormones and antiseizure medications act on each other in both directions, and the questions change across a lifetime: the menstrual cycle, contraception, planning and carrying a pregnancy, breastfeeding, gender-affirming hormones and menopause. Most people with epilepsy who plan a pregnancy have a healthy one. Do not stop an antiseizure medication abruptly because of pregnancy.
Most of the evidence comes from cisgender women, so this topic says “women”. The same principles apply to anyone who menstruates, can become pregnant or takes sex hormones, including transgender and nonbinary people.
Across the lifespan
What to think about at each stage. Each theme is covered below.
How hormones, seizures and antiseizure medications interact
Estrogen tends to excite neurons and progesterone to calm them, through its metabolite allopregnanolone at the gamma-aminobutyric acid type A (GABA-A) receptor. Seizures cluster when estrogen is high relative to progesterone. Separately, many antiseizure medications change hormone levels, and hormones change the levels of antiseizure medications.
Point at or tab to an arrow for its explanation.
Catamenial epilepsy
Catamenial epilepsy is a cyclical worsening of seizures tied to the menstrual cycle. Herzog's working definition is a twofold or greater rise in the average daily seizure frequency in one phase of the cycle (Herzog 1997). In 87 women with focal epilepsy who charted three cycles, 39% met it in at least two of the three (Herzog 2004).
Schematic hormone curves on a 28-day cycle. Day 1 is the first day of bleeding; days before the next bleed are counted back, so ovulation is day −14.
Pattern
Days
Seizures rise against
Why
C1 perimenstrual
−3 to +3
Follicular and luteal days
Progesterone and allopregnanolone fall before menses
C2 periovulatory
10 to −13
Follicular and luteal days
The preovulatory estrogen surge, not yet opposed by progesterone
C3 luteal, in inadequate luteal-phase cycles
10 to +3
Follicular days (4 to 9)
Estrogen rises at midcycle but progesterone stays low
Making the diagnosis.Ask for a diary of seizures and bleeding days over two or three cycles. A midluteal (day 22) progesterone below 5 ng/mL marks an inadequate luteal phase. The calculator applies Herzog's comparisons to one charted cycle.
Enter seizure counts from one cycle. The day counts adjust to the cycle length; the ovulatory phase absorbs the difference.
Treatment
Optimize the everyday antiseizure medication first. Apart from one large negative trial of progesterone, the options below rest on small or uncontrolled studies. A Cochrane review found only four randomized trials that met its criteria (treatment for at least 12 weeks), all of progesterone or norethisterone (Maguire 2021).
Option
Evidence
Clobazam around menses, for about 10 days
Double-blind crossover in 18 women: clobazam preferred by 14 (Feely 1982). Needs predictable cycles; clobazam may make hormonal contraception less effective.
Acetazolamide, intermittent or daily
Retrospective survey of 20 women: 40% reported at least 50% fewer seizures (Lim 2001).
A temporary rise in the usual antiseizure medication dose over the vulnerable days
Common practice; not tested in trials.
Progesterone lozenges in the second half of the cycle
National Institutes of Health phase III trial, 294 women: no benefit overall. In a prespecified secondary analysis, women whose seizures at least tripled perimenstrually (about a fifth of the trial) responded more often: 37.8% vs 11.1% on placebo (Herzog 2012).
Uncontrolled series only; for example, of 14 women with uncontrolled seizures given medroxyprogesterone, the 11 who developed amenorrhea averaged 30% fewer seizures a month, and 7 of them reported fewer seizures (Mattson 1984). Consider interactions and bone health.
Key points
Estrogen is proconvulsant; progesterone, through allopregnanolone, is anticonvulsant.
Catamenial epilepsy is a twofold or greater rise in seizures in one phase of the cycle; chart two or three cycles to show it.
Apart from one large negative trial of progesterone, every hormonal treatment for it rests on small or uncontrolled studies.
Quick check A woman's seizures cluster in the two days before menses and the first days of menses. What hormonal change best explains the C1 (perimenstrual) pattern?
C1 follows the premenstrual fall in progesterone, C2 the unopposed estrogen surge at ovulation, and C3 the whole second half of cycles in which progesterone stays low.
Contraception
Clinical
An unplanned pregnancy carries more risk with epilepsy: the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) lists epilepsy among the conditions in which pregnancy raises the risk of adverse health events, and a switch away from valproate or topiramate takes months to plan. Choose a method that the antiseizure medication does not weaken.
Named by the CDC: phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate and oxcarbazepine.
By their US labels: eslicarbazepine, cenobamate, rufinamide and clobazam can make hormonal contraception less effective, as can perampanel and topiramate at higher doses.
Felbamate lowered the progestin of a combined pill, without hormonal evidence of ovulation.
They make pills, patches, rings and implants less reliable; intrauterine devices and depot medroxyprogesterone are unaffected.
Sources: US Medical Eligibility Criteria 2024; the antiseizure medications' US labels (felbamate label).
Lamotrigine works in both directions
Combined pills more than halved lamotrigine levels: 13 against 28 µmol/L.
In the hormone-free week levels rose by a median 27%.
Progestin-only methods did not change lamotrigine.
The other way: lamotrigine lowered levonorgestrel by 19%, without evidence of ovulation.
On an inducer, or within 4 weeks of stopping one: offer a copper intrauterine device.
If that is not possible, levonorgestrel at the guideline's adjusted dose can be considered, with unknown effectiveness.
Ulipristal is not recommended.
Source: the emergency contraception guideline of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH, now the College of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare) (FSRH 2020, amended 2023).
Valproate and topiramate
Valproate requires highly effective contraception under the European and UK pregnancy prevention programmes.
The programmes now also cover topiramate: European Union from 2023, UK from June 2024.
Levels in two groups of women (Sabers 2003) and, schematically, the rise in the hormone-free week (Contin 2006); Reimers 2005 and Sidhu 2006 for the progestin side.
Key points
Enzyme-inducing medications make hormonal pills, patches, rings and implants less reliable; intrauterine devices and depot medroxyprogesterone are unaffected.
Combined estrogen methods lower lamotrigine levels, and levels rise again in the hormone-free week.
On an enzyme inducer, the emergency method of choice is a copper intrauterine device.
Quick check A 24-year-old taking carbamazepine wants reliable contraception. Which method is not weakened by her medication?
With an enzyme inducer, choose a method the drug cannot touch: an intrauterine device or depot medroxyprogesterone, keeping bone health in mind with the depot injection.
Quick check A 22-year-old whose focal seizures are controlled on lamotrigine starts a combined oral contraceptive with a 7-day hormone-free week. What happens to her lamotrigine level?
Estrogen-containing contraceptives lower lamotrigine concentrations by about 50%, the level can rise toward double by the end of the hormone-free week, and most patients need a dose adjustment when they start or stop such a pill (lamotrigine label; Sabers 2003; Contin 2006). Progestin-only methods did not change lamotrigine (Reimers 2005).
Pregnancy: planning and the nine months
Clinical
Most women with epilepsy who plan a pregnancy have a healthy one. The decisive work happens before conception, in choosing the medication and recording a baseline level, and continues with levels through the nine months.
Planning a pregnancy
The work before conception, from the 2024 American Academy of Neurology, American Epilepsy Society and Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine guideline (Pack 2024) and the studies in the cards below.
Choose the antiseizure medication before conception
The 2024 guideline asks for medications and doses that optimize both seizure control and fetal outcome, at the earliest opportunity before conception.
Consider lamotrigine, levetiracetam or oxcarbazepine; avoid valproate when clinically feasible.
Never stop a drug abruptly.
Aim for seizure control first
Seizure freedom for at least 9 months before pregnancy was probably associated with an 84–92% chance of staying seizure-free during it.
From the 2009 American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society (AAN/AES) review, retired in 2025 for updating.
Folic acid, before conception and through pregnancy
The 2024 guideline sets a minimum equal to the usual prenatal supplement: Level B to lower neural tube defects, and Level A to possibly improve neurodevelopment.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) advises a higher dose for all women with epilepsy through the first trimester. The best dose is uncertain.
Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs study (NEAD): periconceptional folate, mean intelligence quotient (IQ) 108 against 101.
Maternal Outcomes and Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs study (MONEAD): no neurodevelopmental signal of harm at higher doses.
A Nordic registry study linked high-dose folic acid with more childhood cancer in children of mothers with epilepsy (adjusted hazard ratio 2.7).
In the Women with Epilepsy: Pregnancy Outcomes and Deliveries study (WEPOD), women with epilepsy trying to conceive became pregnant within 12 months as often as controls: 60.7% against 60.2%.
81.5% of pregnancies in each group ended in a live birth.
Convulsive seizures are the main danger to mother and baby, so the guideline's first priority is to minimize them (Level A). Death during the delivery hospitalization was 80 per 100,000 deliveries in women with epilepsy against 6 per 100,000 in women without, and preeclampsia, preterm labor and stillbirth were modestly more common (MacDonald 2015). In the UK, sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) caused 11 of 14 epilepsy-related maternal deaths in 2006–08 (Edey 2014).
Deaths during the delivery hospitalization in a US inpatient sample (MacDonald 2015) and UK epilepsy-related maternal deaths (Edey 2014).
Malformations and development
Guidance
Medications
Notes
Avoid when clinically feasible
Valproate
Dose-dependent risk of major malformations (neural tube, cardiac); lowers the intelligence quotient (IQ) and raises the risk of autism spectrum disorder. The guideline also says to avoid valproate and topiramate to reduce babies born small for gestational age.
Avoid for specific risks
Phenobarbital, Topiramate
Phenobarbital: cardiac malformations. Phenobarbital and topiramate: oral clefts. Topiramate: babies born small for gestational age. The guideline says to avoid them when clinically feasible alternatives exist.
Risk rises with dose
Carbamazepine, Phenytoin
Risk varies by medication and dose; higher-dose carbamazepine carried more than twice the odds of levetiracetam (Tomson 2018). The guideline's rationale calls the lowest appropriate dose reasonable practice.
Consider first
Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam, Oxcarbazepine
The 2024 guideline says to consider these to minimize major congenital malformations (Level A). No medication is universally safest for every epilepsy.
Major malformations with each monotherapy at conception in EURAP, the International Registry of Antiepileptic Drugs and Pregnancy, with 95% intervals from the counts (Battino 2024). The dose bands in the table below are the exposure bands of the registry's 2018 report (Tomson 2018).
Medication
Lower exposure band
Middle exposure band
Higher exposure band
Valproate
≤650 mg/day: 6.3%
651–1450 mg/day: 11.3%
>1450 mg/day: 25.2%
Phenobarbital
≤80 mg/day: 2.7%
81–130 mg/day: 6.2%
>130 mg/day: 11.7%
Carbamazepine
≤700 mg/day: 4.5%
—
>700 mg/day: 7.2%
Lamotrigine
≤325 mg/day: 2.5%
—
>325 mg/day: 4.3%
Malformation rate by daily dose at conception, EURAP 2018. The bands are registry exposure bands, grouping the doses women were already taking; they are not prescribing guidance. Dose dependence was significant for all four in 2018; the registry's 2024 analysis, in the chart above, reported a significant dose effect for valproate, phenobarbital and carbamazepine.
Intelligence quotient
At age 6, mean IQ after valproate exposure was 97, against 105 for carbamazepine and 108 for lamotrigine and phenytoin.
US cohort: autism spectrum disorder by age 8 in 10.5% after valproate, 6.2% after topiramate, 4.1% after lamotrigine and 4.2% unexposed; after adjustment, only valproate raised the risk (hazard ratio 2.67).
Nordic registries: higher adjusted risks of autism spectrum disorder (hazard ratio 2.8) and intellectual disability (3.5) after topiramate as well, so the evidence for topiramate conflicts.
In MONEAD, where most mothers with epilepsy took one or both, their children's language and verbal scores matched those of children of healthy women at ages 2, 3 and 6.
Higher exposure was linked to lower scores on some measures, varying by medication (secondary analyses at ages 2 and 3; a primary analysis, by third-trimester blood levels, at age 6).
The guideline recommends developmental screening for every exposed child.
Clearance rises through pregnancy and falls back within weeks of delivery. In MONEAD, 23% of pregnant women had more seizures with impaired consciousness, about the same as nonpregnant women with epilepsy (25%), but the pregnant women's doses were changed more than twice as often (74% vs 31%; Pennell 2020). Monitoring and adjusting doses is part of why.
Top: A schematic from published magnitudes; individual courses vary. With lamotrigine, seizures worsened when the level fell below 65% of the individual's target (Pennell 2008). Bottom: Pennell 2022.
Check levels
Against the prepregnancy baseline, through pregnancy, guided by each drug's pharmacokinetics; many centers check lamotrigine, levetiracetam and oxcarbazepine monthly.
Raise the dose when the level falls or seizures return (guideline, Level B).
Once she is pregnant
Be cautious about removing or replacing an antiseizure medication that controls tonic–clonic seizures (Level B).
The choice to avoid valproate or topiramate belongs before conception.
In labor
Continue antiseizure medications.
Treat a convulsive seizure promptly with the institution's pregnancy-aware protocol, and consider eclampsia.
Historical registry data (2006–2012)
Do not use this older table as a current counseling calculator. It reproduces selected results from 2006–2012 publications with different enrollment, comparator, dose, and outcome methods. Current counseling should use the 2024 American Academy of Neurology, American Epilepsy Society and Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine guideline and the latest pregnancy-registry publications. The historical data remain useful for illustrating dose dependence and why estimates differ among registries.
Medication
North American Antiepileptic Drug Pregnancy Registry (Hernández-Díaz 2012)
UK and Ireland Epilepsy and Pregnancy Register (Morrow 2006)
EURAP (Tomson 2011)
Lamotrigine
2.0%
3.2%
2.0% (<300mg) 4.5% (≥300mg)
Levetiracetam
2.4%
0% (small sample)
-
Carbamazepine
3.0%
2.2%
3.4% (<400mg) 8.7% (≥1000mg)
Phenytoin
2.9%
3.7%
-
Valproate
9.3%
6.2%
5.6% (<700mg) 24.2%
(≥1500mg)
Topiramate
4.2%
7.1%
-
Phenobarbital
5.5%
-
5.4% (<150mg) 13.7% (≥150mg)
Unexposed / Control
1.1%
3.5%
-
Key points
Choose the medication before conception: lamotrigine, levetiracetam and oxcarbazepine carry the lowest malformation risks; avoid valproate when clinically feasible.
Record a baseline level while seizures are controlled; clearance rises through pregnancy, so check levels against it.
Convulsive seizures are the main danger to mother and baby. Never stop a medication abruptly because of pregnancy.
Quick check A woman whose seizures are controlled on lamotrigine is 16 weeks pregnant and has had her first breakthrough seizure. What is the most likely cause?
Compare a level with the prepregnancy baseline and raise the dose when it has fallen; then lower it again after delivery as clearance returns.
Quick check A 27-year-old with generalized epilepsy, free of tonic–clonic seizures for 3 years on valproate, is first seen at 20 weeks of an unplanned pregnancy. What is the best plan for her medication?
Valproate is avoided when clinically feasible, but that choice is made before conception. Once a woman is pregnant, the guideline advises caution in removing or replacing an antiseizure medication that controls generalized or focal to bilateral tonic–clonic seizures (Pack 2024). Continue it, follow levels, and plan developmental screening for the child.
After delivery, and later in life
Clinical
The questions continue after the birth: doses raised in pregnancy, breastfeeding and sleep, then bone health, gender-affirming hormones and menopause.
Delivery and after
A schematic level after delivery with the dose left at its pregnancy level; Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists guideline 68 (RCOG 2016).
Lower any dose raised in pregnancy
Plan the reduction before delivery and review it within 10 days of birth, as the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) advises.
As clearance returns, watch for dizziness, diplopia and ataxia.
Newborns receive intramuscular vitamin K routinely; RCOG specifically advises it after exposure to enzyme inducers.
In the 2009 American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society (AAN/AES) review, evidence was insufficient to support giving the mother vitamin K before delivery.
Breastfeeding is encouraged. In the Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs study (NEAD), children who were breastfed had an intelligence quotient (IQ) 4 points higher at age 6 than those who were not (Meador 2014). In the Maternal Outcomes and Neurodevelopmental Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs study (MONEAD) about half of infant blood levels were too low to measure; the median infant level was 28.9% of the mother's for lamotrigine and 5.3% for levetiracetam (Birnbaum 2020). Levetiracetam passes freely into milk, but infants eliminate it quickly (Johannessen 2005). With lamotrigine, watch the infant for rash, apnea, drowsiness, poor sucking and poor weight gain (lamotrigine label). Watch for sedation and poor feeding with phenobarbital, primidone and benzodiazepines.
Bone and reproductive health
Bone, sex hormones and perimenopause, from the studies in the cards below and in Perimenopause and menopause.
Valproate and polycystic ovary features
In a 12-month randomized comparison, new features of polycystic ovary syndrome (hyperandrogenism or ovulatory dysfunction) appeared in 54% on valproate and 38% on lamotrigine; the full syndrome in 9% against 2%.
Hyperandrogenism was more frequent with valproate mainly when it was started before age 26 (44% against 23%).
Evidence is thin. The only cohort with seizure data before and after starting hormones had 34 people: 21 on masculinizing and 13 on feminizing therapy. More had seizures only before starting hormones than only after (18 vs 6), and feminizing therapy made no significant difference (Blackman 2025). In a US inpatient database of 4,765 transgender women, of whom 254 used feminizing hormones, the hormones were not associated with seizures during hospitalization, with a wide confidence interval (Reddy 2026). The rest is extrapolated from contraception and menopause data, so plan changes with the endocrinologist and follow the individual closely.
Check lamotrigine and other relevant antiseizure medication levels.
On an enzyme inducer, check hormone levels and consider a non-inducing antiseizure medication.
Estrogen choice
The World Professional Association for Transgender Health advises against ethinyl estradiol.
It favors transdermal estradiol for people over 45 or with a past venous thromboembolism.
Hormone levels are usually checked every 3 months in the first year.
Bone, fertility and mood
Antiseizure medications and gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists can both lower bone density.
Discuss fertility preservation before starting.
Screen for depression and suicidality: in a clinic cohort of 65 transgender and gender-diverse people with epilepsy, 68% had documented suicidal ideation and 29% had functional/dissociative seizures.
Seizures often worsen in perimenopause, when estrogen swings high relative to progesterone, especially in women with a catamenial pattern. After menopause the picture is mixed, and a past catamenial pattern predicted improvement (Harden 1999). Menopause came earlier in women with more seizures: at a mean 46.7 years with frequent seizures against 49.9 years with infrequent ones (Harden 2003).
Conjugated estrogens with medroxyprogesteroneworsened seizures in a dose-related way; the two women on lamotrigine had levels 25–30% lower.
No study has tested the regimens used today in women with epilepsy. Transdermal estradiol with micronized progesterone may have a better safety profile, based on general-population observational data; choose the regimen with the women's health specialist.
Check lamotrigine levels when hormone therapy starts or stops.
In the Women's Health Initiative, postmenopausal women taking antiseizure medications had more fractures (hazard ratio 1.44; 1.36 for enzyme inducers).
Review vitamin D, calcium, falls and bone density.
Primary guidance: American Academy of Neurology, American Epilepsy Society and Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine practice guideline on teratogenesis, perinatal and neurodevelopmental outcomes after in-utero antiseizure medication exposure (Pack 2024); US Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC 2024); RCOG Green-top Guideline 68. This topic supports counseling and does not replace individualized neurology, obstetric, endocrine and maternal-fetal-medicine care.
Key points
Plan before delivery how to lower any dose raised in pregnancy, and review it within days of the birth.
Breastfeeding is encouraged; infant blood levels are far below the mother's, about 5% with levetiracetam and about 29% with lamotrigine, so watch a lamotrigine-exposed infant.
Enzyme inducers and valproate affect bone and sex hormones; seizures often worsen in perimenopause.
Quick check A mother taking levetiracetam asks whether she can breastfeed. What does the evidence support?
Encourage breastfeeding and protect sleep, for example by sharing night feeds with expressed milk.
Further reading
Reference
The guidelines and consensus statements this course draws on most, and one review for the history and pharmacology of the drugs.
Background reading
For how each antiseizure medication was found and how it acts, from bromide to cenobamate, read the review by Löscher and Klein 2021. It is a history and pharmacology review, not a prescribing guide: for the choice of a first drug, follow Choosing a first antiseizure medication and the guidelines below.
Guidelines and consensus statements
Definition of epilepsy: International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) official report, a practical clinical definition (Fisher 2014).
First seizure in adults: American Academy of Neurology and American Epilepsy Society evidence-based guideline on management of an unprovoked first seizure (Krumholz 2015).
Choosing medications: National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guideline NG217, epilepsies in children, young people and adults (NICE 2022, amended since, including in January 2025).
Critical care EEG: American Clinical Neurophysiology Society (ACNS) standardized critical care EEG terminology (Hirsch 2021) and consensus on continuous EEG in critically ill patients (Herman 2015).
Pregnancy: American Academy of Neurology, American Epilepsy Society and Society for Maternal-Fetal Medicine guideline on teratogenesis and outcomes after in-utero exposure (Pack 2024).